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Exam Code: HP0-A25
Exam Name: HP (NonStop SQL/MX)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the correct definition of a column?
A. C1 VARCHAR (100) DEFAULT ®HA M BUR
B. C1 VARCHAR (100) NULL DEFAULT NULL
C. C1 VARCHAR (100) DEFAULT ° SAN TA C LAR
D. C1 VARCHAR (100) NULL DEFAULT ®HA M BUR
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statements are true about the location of the system catalog tables of the system \MYSYS?
(Select two.)
A. The subvolume of the catalog tables is MYSYS.
B. The subvolume of the catalog tables is always ZSD0.
C. The volume of the catalog tables is always $SYSTEM.
D. The subvolume of the catalog tables is always ZSQLMX.
E. The volume of the catalog tables can be found in $SYSTEM.ZSQLMX.MXANCHOR.
Answer: B, E

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NO.3 What are the benefits of using rowsets in SQL/MX? (Select two.)
A. to reduce the throughput
B. to reduce the number of calls to servernet
C. to reduce the disc space for the database
D. to reduce simultaneous access to several rows
E. to reduce the number of calls to the database system
Answer: B, E

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NO.4 The following query is a typical example of which potential problem? UPDATE inventory SET
retail_price =retail_price * 1.1;
A. the Halloween update
B. the query will take too long to execute
C. the retail_price column cannot be CAST to a float
D. the executor would typically start a parallel query even on small tables
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which command reports the average free space in data blocks?
A. FUP INFO =table, slack
B. FUP INFO =table, stat, analyze
C. FUP INFO table mucatalog.myschema.mytable stat
D. FUP INFO table mucatalog.myschema.mytable detail
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which statements are true about AUDITCOMPRESS? (Select two.)
A. The audit contains only altered columns.
B. It has no effect on transaction throughput. C. It is part of the system ¯ s T M F con fi gu r a ti on
D. It contributes to higher transaction throughput.
E. Compression is performed by the audit disk process.
Answer: A, D

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NO.7 A table mytable has been defined on the development system. As several changes have been made
the original create-script is no longer valid. Which combination of mxci commands can be used to produce
a valid create-script?
A. LOG and SHOWDDL
B. OUT and SHOWDDL
C. OUT and INVOKE
D. LOG and INFO TABLE, OBEYFORM
Answer: A

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NO.8 A column definition includes DOB DATE HEADING ®B irt h D a t ¡¯. W h a t is t h e hea di n g o ut p u t f
SELECT MAX(DOB)?
A. MAX(dob)
B. Birth Date
C. EXPR(dob)
D. EXPR
Answer: D

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NO.9 Using the following DDL command: CREATE TABLE new_table LIKE old_table
What can be specified for new_table? (Select two.)
A. Format 1 or Format 2
B. indexes from old_table
C. headings from old_table
D. organization and primary key
E. extent sizes and maximum extents
Answer: C, E

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NO.10 Your system has 30 audited data disks. You want to create a partitioned table with 60 partitions. How
can you accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. You define two partitions on each disk in different subvolumes with the same filename. B. You install
SMF and configure 60 logical disks.
C. You install 30 additional disks.
D. You define two partitions on each disk in the same subvolume with different filenames.
Answer: C, D

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NO.11 How do you access the current data on the SQL/MP view $data.mycat.myview from mxci? (Select two.)
A. SELECT * FROM $data.mycat.myview;
B. CREATE VIEW cat.sch.myview AS SELECT ordernum, order_qty FROM $data.mycat.myview;
SELECT*FROM cat.sch.myview;
C. CREATE SQLMP ALIAS cat.sch.myview $data.mycat.myview; SELECT * FROM cat.sch.myview
D. CREATE TABLE cat.sch.myview LIKE &data.mycat.myview; INSERT INTO cat.sch.myview SELECT *
FROM $data.mycat.myview; SELECT * FROM cat.sch.myview;
Answer: A, C

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NO.12 In SQL/MX syntax, for which database element is an explicit assigned character set supported?
A. row
B. table
C. column
D. constraint
Answer: C

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NO.13 When a table has the primary key defined as DROPPABLE, which statements are true? (Select two.)
A. A SYSKEY is generated for the table. B. The STORE BY clause must be used.
C. A DROPPABLE key can only be ascending.
D. The primary key is used as the clustering key.
E. A seperate unique index is build for the primary key.
Answer: A, E

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NO.14 Who is allowed to add columns to a table? (Select two.)
A. the SUPER.SUPER
B. the owner of the table
C. the owner ¯ s g r op super
D. the owner of the schema
E. users that have been granted access
Answer: A, D

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NO.15 What takes place during a POPULATE INDEX? (Select two.)
A. DDL lock
B. user-defined transaction
C. automatic adjustment of MAXEXTENTS
D. the data movement in a single TMF transaction
E. automatic reload to organize the index structure more efficiently and to reduce index levels
Answer: A, C

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Exam Code: HP0-J43
Exam Name: HP (SAN Infrastructure and Solutions -v10.21)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which technologies or products are covered by the HP Enhanced Implementation Service for SANs?
(Select three.)
A.HP StorageWorks EVA 8400
B.fabric-based encryption
C.P4000 G2 scale-out cluster
D.HP StorageWorks ESL e-Series Library
E.HP BladeSystem FC or Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) switches
F.Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
Answer: BEF

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NO.2 A SAN extension using FCIP with Continuous Access EVA is being implemented. Best practices dictate
using separate switches for host and replication fabrics. A high availability, no single point of failure design
is specified, however the customer only has a single ISL available between sites. Which SAN
configuration meets these requirements?
A.4-fabric
B.3-fabric
C.6-fabric
D.5-fabric
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which task included in HP Enhanced Implementation Service for SANs is performed by the project
manager.?
A.coordinates service deployment on third-party-maintained hardware and software
B.develops tests to validate the presence of the installed storage switches
C.develops the project plan, which defines the scope of the services to be delivered
D.conducts the customer orientation session
Answer: C

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NO.4 To ensure correct device discovery while implementing a simple SAN, what is the HP recommended
timing for powering up the online storage?
A.before the SAN Switches
B.before the tape library
C.after the router
D.after the servers
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which functionality is added to the B-Series DCFM GUI with the Enterprise Edition?
A.connectivity map
B.minimap
C.toolbox
D.utilization legend
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is a benefit of connecting servers to the SAN one HBA at a time?
A.guarantees the connections are properly documented
B.allows the switch time to balance the load
C.prevents having to reboot the server
D.verifies the HBA logs into the fabric properly
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which management tool ships at no additional charge with each B-Series SAN Switch?
A.Device Manager
B.HAFM
C.DCFM Professional
D.Enterprise Edition Fabric Manager
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which Microsoft command can be used to find an SMTP server IP address when configuring HP SAN
Visibility?
A.netstat
B.netsh
C.nslookup
D.mxquery
Answer: C

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NO.9 How do you verify a successfully completed firmware upgrade done through DCFM?
A.Right-click on the switch in the Connectivity Map and select Verify.
B.Check the heartbeat LED on the switch.
C.Select the verify action from the DCFM Firmware Management page.
D.Open Web Tools for the switch and review the event log.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What must you do to enable NPIV on QLogic HBAs on systems running VMware ESX 4.0?
A.Use the RBSU to enable NPIV on the HBA.
B.Replace the HBA with a Brocade HBA.
C.Update to VMware ESX 4.1.
D.No action is required because the supplied QLogic driver has NPIV enabled by default.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y38
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Wireless Networks)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer is deploying 25 A-WA2620E access points (APs) on each floor of a building that has three
floors. Each floor has an A-WX5002 access controller (AC). You are deploying the first AP. The exhibit
shows the CLI commands you have entered on the AC for bringing up a new AP with serial number 200.
After approximately 30 seconds, the AP has not yet come online.
What is a possible cause of this delay?
A. The CLI service template commands are incorrect.
B. LWAPP is not installed.
C. The AP is updating its software configuration.
D. The ESS interface is not fully defined.
E. The AP information is incorrect.
F. The radio configuration assigned the wrong 802.11n channel parameters.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer wants to extend a network between offices without installing underground lines or
extending overhead lines. Your solution for this customer will include Dynamic MESH. Which primary
factors should you consider for this wireless network? (Select two.)
A. distances between two points
B. type of network traffic the local mesh will handle
C. high-availability requirements
D. what channels the access point needs to use
E. length of cable needed to connect the antenna
Answer: AC

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NO.3 A national real estate agency wants to deploy a wireless network for their employees in their small local
branch offices. The primary applications that will be used on the network include the transfer of
promotional material, which has a high amount of image and graphical data, and online meetings and
webcasts. The agency data has been growing so much that they recently upgraded their broadband
connection from a T3 to an OC-3 and the IT manager is worried that this is not sufficient. The IT manager
is not on site very often and stressed the importance of reliability by saying, "Time is money and quick
network access is very important.?
You visit one of the largest branch locations and discover that it consists of twelve 10x8 ft open cubicles.
You also discover several sources of interference while conducting a preliminary site survey. The
customer's standard security system operates in the 2.4GHz band, one neighboring outdoor 802.11a
WLAN, eight neighboring 802.11g deployments, and several users of Bluetooth headsets.
Which configuration should you recommend?
A. one access point set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 2.4GHz band
B. two access points set to 802.11n 20MHz channels in the 2.4GHz band
C. one access point set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 2 band
D. two access points set to 802.11n 40MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 1 band
E. two access points set to 802.11n 20MHz channels in the 5GHz UNII 2 band
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which type of packet does IACTP use to set up the data tunnel when the client is roaming between the
HA and the FA?
A. TCP
B. IAPP
C. Multicast
D. Broadcast
E. UDP
F. IPSec
Answer: E

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NO.5 You are designing a customer's wireless network. What information is important for you to provide to
RF Planner during the initial phase of design? (Select three.)
A. cross floor coverage
B. wall/ceiling placement of access points
C. building material database
D. the plan for 802.11n coverage as well as 802.11a/b/g coverage
E. ceiling interference database
F. interference modeling of GSM and CDMA networks
G. capacity plan
Answer: ACD

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Exam Code: HP0-J40
Exam Name: HP (Designing HP StorageWorks Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 When talking to a CEO about service availability, which feature of HP Storage Essentials SRM should
be positioned by the consultant?
A. SRM solutions are designed on the SMI-S industry standard for storage network management.
B. Big-picture view monitors and reports on a variety of business applications.
C. Big-picture visualization automatically discovers and maps the storage network.
D. SRM monitors utilization of the host, switch, and array.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which technology enables support of multiple traffic classes over a lossless Ethernet fabric?
A. Fibre Channel over Ethernet
B. Converged Enhanced Ethernet
C. Data Center Bridging
D. Shortest Path Bridging
Answer: B

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NO.3 for application disaster recovery, which type of local replication permits rapid recovery of applications?
A. capacity free snapshot
B. snapclone
C. consistency group snap
D. traditional snapshot
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the main function of core or director switches?
A. provide support of multiple traffic classes over a lossless Ethernet fabric
B. provide inter-switch links for any-to-any connectivity
C. provide Fibre Channel over IP and iSCSI connectivity
D. provide user ports for connecting servers and storage systems
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which encryption type is used for securing data in transit over IP networks?
A. Advanced Encryption Standard
B. Internet protocol security
C. crypto processing engine
D. Storage Media Encryption
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has Microsoft clusters presenting multiple TB of data as file services. The customer is
looking for a technology approach to simplify the data lifecycle management of that large amount of data.
Which HP Storage Essentials SRM tool would help the customer to quickly identify disk space that can be
recycled, pinpoint critical files that should be replicated, and more accurately implement Information
Management initiatives?
A. Backup Manager
B. NAS Manager
C. File System Viewer
D. Provisioning Manager
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which management protocols are used to gather basic information from the system, such as the type
of system (server, workstation, or printer) and serial number? (Select two.)
A. WBEM
B. NTP
C. SMI-S
D. TCP/IP
E. SCTP
Answer: AC

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NO.8 Which component handles file locking in a traditional file servicing infrastructure?
A. majority node
B. file server
C. witness file share
D. quorum disk
Answer: B

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NO.9 A potential customer is experiencing massive data growth in the past year and is no longer meeting
their backup window. The customer's current environment consists of approximately 30 ProLiant servers
utilizing Backup Exec and a SCSI attached LTO2 autoloader.
After a number of meetings, the consultant presents the design of a D2D4112, an MSL8096 with HP Data
Protector. The customer likes the solution, but is concerned about how their staff will cope with the new
concepts and the transition to the new solution.
What should the consultant recommend to the customer for a smooth transition to the new equipment?
(Select two.)
A. hands-on training during implementation
B. handover session after the installation
C. formal classroom training on the new products
D. as-built configuration documentation
E. solution presentation
Answer: AC

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NO.10 Which best practice should be suggested when designing an iSCSI Storage Area Network?
A. limit parallel iSCSI sessions to 500 to achieve optimal performance
B. separate iSCSI traffic from all other network traffic
C. implement separate VLANS for each database application service
D. team 1Gb/s networks to achieve optimal performance
Answer: B

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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which tool can you use to verify SNIA libraries on a server?
A. HP SMH
B. Server System Requirements wizard
C. CIM Extension Installer
D. hbatest
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which parameter should be specified in the cim.extensions.parameters file to enable the CIM extension
to listen on a specific network card?
A. -port
B. -on
C. -mgmtServerIP
D. -nic
Answer: B

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NO.3 What do you use to calculate File System Viewer licenses?
A. host MAPS
B. NAS capacity (RAW) in managed TB
C. total array capacity in managed TB
D. scanned space (file sizes) in TB
E. managed host files system (volume) in TB
Answer: D

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NO.4 What must you do if a managed EVA becomes managed by the passive CommandView EVA server?
A. Run a Get Details
B. Run Update Element Data
C. Manage CIM Extensions
D. Enable Troubleshooting Mode
Answer: A

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NO.5 Using Storage Essentials, you discover a customer's SAN switches, storage arrays, tape and libraries.
What must you do next to implement Backup Manager?
A. Install the corresponding SMI-S provider on the backup server.
B. Discover hosts.
C. Discover applications.
D. Install the corresponding CIM extension on the backup manager hosts.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-Z14
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP S-Series Networking Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 On your initial sales call with a small startup company, you want to focus on presenting the three
primary benefits of incorporating HP security solutions into their network. You begin your presentation by
discussing how HP solutions reduce risk and reduce costs. What is the third primary benefit?
A. centralized policy management
B. business enablement
C. increased security policies
D. integrated business processes
Answer: B

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NO.2 Item 1 of 50 Mark item for review Your customer has come to you with a large, complex data center that
requires enhanced security. When deciding which HP networking solution to pitch to the customer, which
data-center specific security needs would be appropriate to consider in your decision?
A. scalable, security requirements
B. extensive deployment time
C. de-centralized security policy management requirements
D. limited virtualization
Answer: A

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NO.3 How do HP Networking solutions enable businesses? (Select three.)
A. They can safely open networks to customers and business partners.
B. They isolate business processes.
C. They create new security positions.
D. They provide auditable results.
E. They provide rapid deployment of security services and policies.
F. They eliminate the need for additional security policies.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.4 Which security risks are minimized by utilizing HP Networking security products? (Select three.)
A. security breaches
B. recovery costs
C. system stability
D. system downtime
E. number of attempted attacks
F. data loss
Answer: A,D,F

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NO.5 HP's approach to security and policy enforcement includes the following goals: define once, enforce
everywhere, and provide what kind of responses in real time?
A. automated
B. scalable
C. immediate
D. updated
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the HP holistic approach to network security?
A. Different security products working at different locations must work independently to implement the
organizations' desired policies.
B. Similar security solutions have to be deployed at different locations to work well and enforce policies
appropriately.
C. The objective is to define and manage one security policy and coordinate all of your different security
devices across the entire network in a seamless, coordinated fashion.
D. A complete security solution should focus on centralized monitoring and management policies.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How does HP ensure that TippingPoint IPS devices achieve high in-line performance? (Select two.)
A. by performing a number of analysis filters in parallel, so we can look for many signatures or problems in
parallel
B. by including granular application access control
C. by deploying multiple IPS appliances with narrow coverage each, thereby increasing throughput
D. by deploying several appliances in parallel and load balancing traffic across them with the core
controller product
Answer: D,A

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NO.8 How do HP Networking security solutions reduce the costs of deploying and managing security systems
in the network? (Select three.)
A. Automated real-time threat mitigation lowers per-incident costs.
B. Higher throughput of data increases reduced time to deployment.
C. Centralized policy management reduces complexity, learning curve, and deployment time.
D. Network-integrated solutions reduce deployment and management costs.
E. Core-to-edge deployment eliminates the need for administrator intervention.
F. Flexibility in deployment options reduces network downtime.
Answer: E,A,C

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NO.9 You have been discussing IPS options with a potential customer. The customer is being hesitant to
deploy an IPS in-line because they are worried that the IPS will block legitimate business traffic that might
occasionally be mislabeled as a threat. What information should be included in your response to the
customer? (Select two.)
A. The only way to catch threats in real-time and block them from your network is by deploying the IPS
appliance in-line.
B. The number of false positives that are blocked are minimal and have no effect on system throughput.
C. TippingPoint is deployed in-line at a far higher rate than the competition, signifying that customers
have trust in the accuracy of our filters, allowing us to provide better automated remediation, and more
effective security with less effort from administrators.
D. A TippingPoint IPS will only block traffic that is designated as risky based on the information provided
by the Digital Vaccine services, and having the IPS in-line will not change this.
E. Our filters are designed to be deployed in-line, and our customers trust our filters.
Answer: A , C

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NO.10 Which key security challenges are impacting network security today?
A. consumerization, compliance, convergence, consolidation
B. collaboration, compliance, consumerization, convergence
C. compliance, convergence, consumerization, customization
D. collaboration, customization, consumerization, convergence
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-D12
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Converged Infrastructure Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Your customer is not fully ready for BladeSystem Matrix, but is interested in unified management of
their physical and virtual environments. Which products should you recommend for this customer instead
of Matrix?
A. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
B. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C. Insight Control and Virtual Connect Manager
D. Insight Dynamics and Virtual Machine Management
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which functionality is provided by Insight Control server migration?
A. It supports migrations to third-party x86 servers running a supported operating system.
B. It uses a Migration Wizard to upgrade to an Integrity or ProLiant server blade target.
C. It automates migration from legacy servers to virtual servers.
D. It manages the process of deploying a server from bare metal.
Answer: C

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NO.3 DRAG DROP.
Click the Task button. Match the product package with the term that describes its position within the
modular HP Insight software portfolio.
Answer:

NO.4 Which statement is true about the server migration functionality of Insight Control?
A. Virtual machines for V2P migrations must reside on a VMware host.
B. Virtual machines for V2V migrations require a separate license per virtual machine.
C. Source and target servers can be Integrity or ProLiant servers or virtual machines.
D. Physical server migration requires a Windows iSCSI Initiator.
Answer: D

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NO.5 What does the Matrix Starter Kit include that the Matrix Expansion Kit does not.?
A. BladeSystem c7000 enclosure with fully redundant power supplies, fans, and Onboard
Administrator
B. HP 10000 G2 series rack (and rack and power options)
C. redundant Virtual Connect Flex-10 Ethernet and 8Gb Fibre Channel interconnects
D. Insight Dynamics, Insight Control, and VCEM
Answer: B

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NO.6 With Insight Control, you can generate a report that enables you to determine the overall
performance status of a system. Which three values should you reference on this report for this
information? (Select three.)
A. Accessible Duration of Server
B. Average CPU Utilization
C. Inaccessible Duration of Server
D. %Major
E. %Minor
F. %Normal
Answer: D,E,F

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NO.7 Industry analysts report that businesses are scaling back the research and development efforts that
lead to innovation. What are two reasons cited as the cause of this trend? (Select two.)
A. aversion to risks while marketing new technology
B. cost of lost time, effort, and opportunity
C. lack of trained personnel
D. unpredictable business cycles
E. limited access to capital investors
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 At what point would a customer environment need to be split into two separate HP SIM managed
groups with two central management servers?
A. 50 physical servers
B. 50 virtual machines
C. 1,000 managed components including iLOs
D. 5,000 physical servers and virtual machines
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement is true regarding virtual machine management with Insight Control?
A. Physical and virtual servers can be moved using a GUI-initiated drag and drop or a CLI.
B. Integration with HP SIM enables you to move virtual machines based on predictive hardware alerts.
C. A separate license is required to manage performance of Integrity virtual machines.
D. Virtual machines can be load balanced across a cluster automatically.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which benefit is provided by Insight Control for Linux 6?
A. Virtual Media support on iLO-based servers without PXE and DHCP
B. scaling enhancements for enterprise data center operation with more than 5,000 physical nodes
C. deployment support for a Windows-based ProLiant central management server (CMS)
D. virtual machine management support on community-supported Linux distributions, including Debian
and Ubuntu
Answer: A

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
The component technologies of which aspect of the HP Converged Infrastructure are illustrated in the
exhibit?
A. Infrastructure Operating Environment
B. FlexFabric
C. Data Center Smart Grid
D. virtual resource pools
Answer: C

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NO.12 What are two advantages of installing HP Insight Control for VMware vCenter Server? (Select two.)
A. provides an in-context launch of HP SIM
B. the ability to reboot host servers in different clusters
C. additional tabs for Insight Control and Insight Dynamics information related to VMware vCenter
D. access to view health and status information from iLOs and the Onboard Administrator
E. direct links to open Capacity Advisor reports
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 Which statements are true regarding Insight Control virtual machine management? (Select two.)
A. It disables use of drag-and-drop functionality to relocate virtual machines.
B. Virtual machines can be purchased and delivered as "chunks" of capacity.
C. It proactively relocates virtual machines before hardware failures occur.
D. It enables the safe and orderly shutdown of VMware ESX hosts.
E. It includes expanded support for virtual storage replication.
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 Your customer is concerned about power service interruptions but is unable to invest in the power
infrastructure at this time. Which questions should you ask your customer to consider? (Select two.)
A. How can load be reduced?
B. How can capacity be reclaimed?
C. How can failover clusters be implemented?
D. How can peak workloads be balanced more effectively?
E. How can redundancy be extended throughout the data center?
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 How is Insight Control licensed for ProLiant servers?
A. per core
B. per server
C. per migration
D. per virtual machine host
Answer: B

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NO.16 How is Insight Control power management different from power management applications available
from major HP competitors?
A. It does not require p-state-capable hardware.
B. It supports legacy versions of HP-UX.
C. It displays monetary power management savings.
D. It enables you to power servers on and off remotely.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Provisioning a new application infrastructure can often take weeks or months to complete. What is one
typical reason that the process can become so complicated?
A. Complying with government regulations causes lengthy delays.
B. Built-to-order servers, storage, and networking devices require long lead times.
C. Ordering the necessary components requires complex paperwork.
D. Lack of standardization hinders automation and governance.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which links within the Server Management area under the HP Insight Software tab in VMware vCenter
enable you to launch HP interfaces in new browsers? (Select two.)
A. Onboard Administrator
B. Insight Dynamics for ProLiant
C. Insight Control
D. Integrated Lights-Out
E. Baseboard Management Controller
Answer: A,D

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NO.19 Which tools are included on the Insight Foundation Management DVD? (Select two.)
A. Firmware Maintenance
B. ProLiant Support Packs
C. SmartStart
D. Systems Insight Manager
E. System Management Homepage
Answer: D,E

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NO.20 With Insight Control server deployment, by default, which identifiers are included by default as part
of the displayed name for a newly discovered server blade? (Select three.)
A. bay number
B. enclosure name
C. Onboard Administrator name
D. server asset tag
E. rack name
F. server serial number
Answer: A,B,E

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Exam Code: HP0-Y33
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Wireless Networks)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 97 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of E-MSM controllers that can be configured into a single team?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: E

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NO.2 When would the IP address of the Internet port on an MSM controller be set to "No Address"?
A. when NAT is enabled
B. when only authenticated traffic is passing through the Internet port
C. when NAT is disabled
D. when only VLAN traffic is passing through the Internet port
Answer: D

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NO.3 After completing the configuration and synchronization of all team members, you discover through your
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you check?
A. that your VSC DHCP parameters are set correctly
B. that you have enabled your local DHCP server on your Team Manager (controller)
C. that an external DHCP server exists and is operational on your network
D. that DHCP Relay has been configured on all your team members (controllers)
Answer: C

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NO.4 In your existing wireless network you have a variety of E-MSM controllers. Which products are capable
of supporting teaming? (Select two.)
A. E-MSM710
B. E-MSM730
C. E-MSM750
D. E-MSM760
E. E-MSM765zl
Answer: D,E

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NO.5 When configuring the MSM controller for a controlled mode network, at which point is the AP's VSC
egress VLAN configured?
A. when the Group is created
B. when the AP is synchronized with its Group
C. when the specified VLAN is created
D. when the VSC is bound to the Group
Answer: D

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NO.6 On a VSC, which Traffic Type options can be specified for egress VLANs? (Select three.)
A. default gateway traffic
B. IP filtered traffic
C. authenticated traffic
D. untagged traffic
E. intercepted traffic
F. unauthenticated traffic
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.7 When Centralized Access Control is configured as Automatic, when is a user data tunnel created?
A. when more than one controller is on the network that has the same access control configuration
B. when tunnels are manually configured and available
C. when IPSec is set up between two controllers
D. when a synchronized AP and its controller are on different subnets
Answer: D

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NO.8 A financial institution needs to deploy 80 access points in their new building. Since the institution is not
interested in purchasing additional wired switches for their LAN infrastructure, which solution should be
recommended to manage the access points?
A. HP A3000-24G-PoE+ Wireless Switch
B. HP A-WX5002 Access Controller
C. HP A-WX5004 Access Controller
D. HP A7500/E7900 Access Controller Module
Answer: C

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NO.9 Your controller's Team Manager has suffered a catastrophic failure and an Interim Manager has been
selected. Which action is required to allow the Interim Manager to distribute a new software release to its
team members?
A. The Interim Manager is promoted to Team Manager status.
B. The Interim Manager is rebooted and reconfigured as the new Team Manager.
C. The Interim Manager promotes another team member to Team Manager and the new TeamManager
uploads the new software to the team members.
D. Each Team Member is manually upgraded from the Interim Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.10 which feature should you enable to enhance Layer 2 (L2) roaming?
A. seamless roaming
B. rapid authentication
C. WPA2 Opportunistic Key Caching
D. single network AP hopping
Answer: C

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NO.11 In the configuration of an E-MSM760 controller, you find that the default VSC is access controlled.
Which statements are true about an inbound packet on the LAN port which does not have a VLAN tag?
(Select two.)
A. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
B. The packet is associated with that VSC if the packet has a known SSID tag.
C. The packet is dropped as the LAN port will only accept VLAN tagged packets.
D. The packet is associated with the default VSC if it has no matching SSID tag.
E. The packet is dropped if the destination IP address is not the same as the MSM controllerIP address on
the LAN port.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
You have deployed a guest wireless service in the reception area of a marketing firm. The clients
associated with the guest service should be assigned to VLAN 10. When you test the configuration,
clients are being assigned IP addresses in the 192.168.0.0 subnet. You view the access controller
configuration shown in the exhibit.
Which command resolves the issue by correctly associating VLAN 10 with the appropriate interface.?
A. [sysname-wlan-st-1] port access vlan 10
B. [sysname-WLAN-ESS1] port access vlan 10
C. [sysname-GigabitEthernet1/0/1] port access vlan 10
D. [sysname-Vlan-interface10] port access vlan 10
Answer: B

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NO.13 .What are the major benefits of creating a team of controllers? (Select two.)
A. controller redundancy
B. Flow support
C. local DHCP support
D. PPTP client and server support
E. single IP management of all team controllers
Answer: A,E

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NO.14 In order to create a new VLAN in an MSM controller configuration, which path should you take to
access the correct screen?
A. VSCs>[select a VSC]>VSC Profile
B. VSCs>VSC bindings>VLANs
C. Controller>Management>VLANs
D. Controller>Network>Ports
Answer: D

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NO.15 An HP E-MSM760 Controller receives untagged traffic on its LAN port from a wireless client associated
with an access point from another manufacturer. In a WLAN configured with VSCs 1-4, which VSC will be
selected to pass this traffic?
A. VSC 2
B. VSC 3
C. VSC 4
D. default VSC
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-M35
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP TRIM 7.x Software)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Once a record is authorized for destruction, how should you change the status from Active to Destroyed
in HP TRIM?
A. Locate the record, right-click and select Properties. In the Title field, add the word Destroyed before the
title.
B. Locate the record, right-click and select Administrative Tools > Retention. Click the Disposition tab and
select the options to change disposition to Destroyed.
C. Locate the record and change the Home Assignee Locations to Destroyed for the record container.
D. Locate the record, right-click and select Record Type. Click on the record type that holds Destroyed
records, and then click OK.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which action should you perform before importing data?
A. update locations
B. validate index
C. back up datasets and document stores
D. take dataset offline
Answer: C

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NO.3 For what purpose would you use the Print Report function?
A. to produce electronic documents
B. to generate barcode labels
C. to print workflows
D. to create HTML documents
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the difference between the Check Out and Edit functions in HP TRIM?
A. Check Out shows that a document is checked out to a user and shows the check out in the Assignee
field; Edit allows you to edit an electronic document.
B. Check Out provides document revision/replacement option during Check In; Edit automatically creates
a revision with no user interaction.
C. Check Out acts as a placeholder for a document and prevents other users from viewing it if it is
checked out; Edit allows you to select the application that will be used to make changes in the document.
D. Check Out cannot be used on a document; Edit allows you to change the metadata properties of a HP
TRIM record.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Export function supports many different elements of information. Which objects can be exported.?
(Select three.)
A. locations
B. record types
C. electronic documents
D. shortcut keys
E. metadata
F. document queues
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 Which HP TRIM function allows you to select the fields to "export" record metadata to a Word, Word
Perfect, or tab-delimited file?
A. TRIMPort
B. Print Merge
C. SuperCopy
D. Copy
Answer: B

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NO.7 How do you add activities to the Workflow template?
A. Select Tools > Add Activity.
B. Right-click, then select Add Activity.
C. Select Edit > New Activity.
D. Select File > New > Activity.
Answer: B

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NO.8 When creating a new document record for HP TRIM via Windows Explorer, the user should highlight the
document, right-click and select what?
A. Send to HP TRIM
B. New to HP TRIM
C. Open with HP TRIM
D. Properties for HP TRIM
Answer: A

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NO.9 Users have the ability to perform a Record Request in HP TRIM, which places an electronic request in
the Record Request screen, accessed by Tools > Record > Record Request. Other than manually
deleting the Record Request, how is the Record Request removed from the Record Request screen?
A. by double clicking on the Record Request to fulfill the Request
B. by changing the record's assignee to the requestor's name
C. by right-clicking on the record and selecting Locations > Request
D. by changing the record's home location to the requestor's name
Answer: B

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NO.10 HOTSPOT
Click the Task button. Click on the menu option you should select to administer a SharePoint document in
HP TRIM, while allowing users to edit and use this document within SharePoint.
Answer:

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Exam Code: HP2-B75
Exam Name: HP (Imaging and Printing Security-Technical)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and
imaging devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.2 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use?
(Select three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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NO.3 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical
theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.5 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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