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Exam Code: LOT-404
Exam Name: IBM (Developing Enterprise Mobile Applications with IBM Worklight and IBM WebSphere Portal)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which three needs can be met with an IBM Worklight-only application approach? (Choose
three.)
A. offline use
B. app store presence
C. authentication management
D. access to mobile native features
E. use of existing IBM WebSphere Portal environment
F. personalization driven by IBM Web Content Manager content
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 How can media queries combine multiple conditions?
A. using the symbol "&"
B. by an iteration with ??by an iteration with ?
C. by nesting with brackets
D. using keywords "and", "or", "not"
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which kind of feed does the REST API accept?
A. XML
B. Web
C. RSS
D. Atom
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which two statements are true regarding the IBM Worklight API? (Choose two.)
A. The Worklight API does not allow a developer to pass data from native to web or web to native.
B. Worklight provides a native API to communicate with the Worklight Server from the native page.
C. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from native to web but not web to native.
D. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from web to native but not native to web.
E. The Worklight API allows navigation to native pages and back, including the passing of data back
and forth.
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 Which event listener is used in an IBM WebSphere Portal theme to detect if a page is loaded
on a mobile device?
A. isWebView
B. isMobileDevice
C. onDeviceReady
D. onMobileDevice
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two themes are included in the Multichannel Feature Pack for IBM Web Experience
Factory 8.0? (Choose two.)
A. iOS
B. Tablet
C. Android
D. Portable
E. Smartphone
Answer: B,E

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NO.7 Mary plans to develop hybrid or native mobile applications with IBM Worklight, specifically for
iOS devices. What will she need to do to accomplish this?
A. She must install IBM Worklight on an iOS device.
B. She must be a part of the iOS developer program, so that the use of Xcode is optional.
C. She must download Xcode, which is an Apple IDE for developing iOS and Mac applications.
D. As long as Xcode is used, iOS applications can be developed on any modern operating system
(Windows, Linux, Mac OS).
Answer: C

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NO.8 What functionality does the IBM Worklight Server provide when Worklight and IBM
WebSphere Portal are used together?
A. The Worklight Server is not used in the architecture.
B. The Worklight Server provides push notifications for the application.
C. The Worklight Server handles all data connections for the application.
D. The Worklight Server must be installed on the same server as WebSphere Portal.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Christine has created an IBM Web Experience Factory project and would like to add the
Multichannel Feature Pack for Web Experience Factory 8.0 to her project. How can she accomplish
this?
A. Install the Web Experience Factory 8.0.0.2 Fix Pack.
B. Modify the override.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
C. Modify the bowstreet.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
D. Right-click on the Web Experience Factory project and select the Import > Web Experience
Factory Archive command.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Where is the correct place to define a Responsive Web Design breakpoint, for example
@media screen, in order to handle the different device sizes on the devices browser?
A. on the default.jsp of the portal theme
B. in the JavaScript of the web container of the mobile device
C. only in hybrid mobile applications can breakpoints be defined
D. in the CSS of the theme for the IBM WebSphere Portal server
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is WebDAV used for in IBM WebSphere Portal?
A. to deploy static resources
B. to register themes and skins
C. to deploy dynamic resources
D. to start the embedded client application
Answer: A

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NO.12 IBM WorkLight Studio is supported and can be installed on which operating systems?
A. Windows
B. Windows, Mac OS, Linux
C. Microsoft Windows, Linux
D. Linux, Mac OS, Windows, Android
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which API is used to create a REST interface?
A. HTTP
B. JAX-RS
C. JSR 168
D. JSR 286
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which scope should be used if the skin relies specifically on code within the theme or has a
specific function that is only useful in that particular theme?
A. Global
B. Private
C. Static-based
D. Theme-based
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which is a true statement regarding Responsive Web Design (RWD) and IBM WebSphere
Portal?
A. A web application using RWD can be published to all supported appstores.
B. A hybrid or native application is needed in order to be able to support RWD concepts.
C. RWD itself is a practical solution to the shifting landscape of devices and screen sizes.
D. Accessing native features of a device is not possible when using RWD with WebSphere Portal.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 00M-670
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SVP Primary Support Provider Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What is required of the customer when a Primary Support Provider wishes to escalate an issue
to IBM Customer Support?
A. The customer must open a Problem Management Report (PMR) through the Service Request (SR)
Portal.
B. The customer must grant IBM Customer Support access to their systems so they can upgrade
their software.
C. There is no customer requirement, the Primary Support Provider will escalate the issue to IBM
Customer Support
D. The customer must install the latest version and patches of the software before IBM Customer
Support can be engaged.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of these best describes a Primary Support Provider's Level 1 Customer Support
responsibilities?
A. Taking the first support call from their customer and escalating it to IBM
B. Logging all calls in a call tracking system and utilizing the tools available to troubleshoot the issue.
C. Testing new software versions of IBM products and communicating the release of said software
to customers that have purchased the software from IBM.
D. Incorporating and testing any program fix provided by IBM Customer Support (as appropriate),
and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass, circumvention, or other notice of
restriction to the customer.
Answer: B

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf

NO.3 What is the recommended IBM technology that may be used to view and control remote
environments in order to troubleshoot an issue?
A. Same time
B. Fix Central
C. Assist On-Site
D. Electronic Service Request
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/support/assistonsite/

NO.4 When should a Primary Support Provider use the telephone to communicate with a customer
that has logged a support call with them?
A. When the customer has to be told bad news
B. When the customer is in a different time zone
C. When the message includes links to documentation
D. When the message has to be conveyed to more than one person
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which party owns the responsibility of communicating a Problem Management Record (PMR)
solution to the end customer?
A. The Primary Support Provider will provide the final solution to the customer because they own
the relationship with the customer
B. Since they are most familiar with the code, the IBM Developer will provide the final solution to
the customer
C. The IBM Customer Support engineer will provide the final solution to the customer, because they
own the relationship with the customer.
D. Because both parties have a case open on the issue, the Primary Support Provider and the IBM
Customer Support engineer are required to jointly present the final solution to the customer
Answer: A

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf(slide 11)

NO.6 What steps should a Primary Support Provider take before escalating an issue to IBM
Customer Support1?
A. Ask the customer to download product documentation
B. Forward emails from the customer to IBM Customer Support
C. Run IBM Support Assistant Lite, get all MustGather information, search the IBM Knowledge Base
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.7 When troubleshooting, it is imperative to gather log files from what time period?
A. After the issue occurred
B. Before the issue occurred
C. When the issued occurred
D. One month before and one month after the issue occurred
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which upload protocols are supported by the ECuRep Tool?
A. SCP , TCP , FTP and Secure FTP
B. TCP , UUCP , HTTP and HTTPS
C. E-mail, HTTP and HTTPS, FTP and Secure FTP
D. E-mail, UUCP , SCP , TCP
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-05.ibm.com/de/support/ecurep/send.html

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Exam Code: 000-623
Exam Name: IBM (System z Cloud and Linux Solution Selling)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 51 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which feature of System z processor virtualization reduces the latency of cross partition
communications?
A. HiperSockets
B. HyperTransport
C. QuickPath Interconnect (QPI)
D. Jupiter Interconnect System Bus Architecture
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer wants to build an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model to host external Cloud
services. Which product is needed to move toward this objective?
A. xCAT
B. TOSCA
C. SmartCloud Control Desk
D. SmartCloud Cost Management
Answer: A

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NO.3 Why would System z Cloud be an advantage for a customer with limited human IT resources?
A. It requires less administration.
B. It costs less per virtual machine.
C. It uses less space in the data center.
D. It consumes less power in the data center
Answer: A

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NO.4 A large software development company that works with customer critical data is losing profits
because of inconsistent versions of its products that several clients use. This situation is causing
customers to migrate to a different solution.
How can a Cloud environment help reduce costs without compromising the security of the data?
A. The patch management capabilities in a System z Cloud maintains the application and
middleware versions.
B. Adopting a private Cloud solution will give the software company a faster go-to-market and
obtain new customers to replace lost revenue.
C. A public Cloud with one application and database server per customer provides the necessary
controls of the application and middleware version with lower cost.
D. A public Cloud with a unique database server and a unique application server for all customers
guarantees that all systems would be at the same release and also provides security.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the recommended first step when implementing System z Cloud?
A. Cooling water
B. Seismic evaluation
C. Energy assessment
D. Direct current availability
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which solution offering is only available for the System z platform?
A. CloudBurst
B. SmartCloud
C. CloudSpace
D. CloudReady
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which System z Cloud feature provides scalability to meet Service Level Agreements without
over-provisioning to meet peak capacity, like Teradata and ExaData?
A. HiperSockets
B. HiperDispatch
C. Level 4 Cache
D. On/Off Capacity on Demand
Answer: D

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NO.8 How can a customer improve consistency in its application server environment?
A. Using SmartCloud Workbench
B. Using SmartCloud Audit Control
C. Updating existing servers using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. Keeping servers the same using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-P10
Exam Name: HP (HP Integrity Server Multi-OS Installation and Deployment)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 147 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You replaced failed hardware in an HP Integrity server. Which steps should you perform to ensure
that the system is operational?
A. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell, and that the Diagnostic LEDs are clear.
B. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded.
C. From the EFI Shell, boot the system. From within the operating system, confirm that the replaced
hardware is functioning and verify the correct status of the Diagnostic LEDs.
D. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded. Then boot the system and confirm that the replaced hardware is functioning.
Answer: D

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NO.2 The rx3600 and rx6600 have LEDs which show the FRU Health status. How can you view the state of
these LEDs remotely?
A. From the MP main menu, select VFP
B. From the MP main menu, select SL
C. From the MP main menu, select CM, then LS
D. From the MP main menu, select CM, then DF
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which command do you use in the EFI Shell to verify that an Integrity rx4640 server has the latest
firmware?
A. openinfo fw
B. info fw
C. ver fw
D. sysrev
Answer: B

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NO.4 You need to perform a maintenance task on a Management Processor module. Which command
displays a list of connected users?
A. who
B. list
C. usmgr
D. show user
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have run an Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility. What should you do before booting
the operating system or running any non-ODE utility?
A. Reset the system at the MP:CM> prompt.
B. Use the MP:CM> poff command to power off the DC voltage.
C. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt and disconnect the AC power for one minute.
D. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt, use the MP:CM> pc command to power off DC voltage, and
disconnect the AC power for one minute.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which methods of accessing the Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utilities does HP recommend?
(Select two.)
A. from the HP service partition
B. from the EFI Boot Menu
C. from the MP command menu
D. from the operating system disk
E. from the Offline Diagnostic Utility CD
Answer: AE

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NO.7 The diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 shows a fan failure. What information on the Management
Processor (MP) shows you when the fan failed?
A. MP:CM> PS
B. MP:CM> SS
C. MP> SL --> L - Live Events
D. MP> SL --> E - System Event
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the difference between a Machine Check Abort (MCA) and a Transfer of Control (TOC)?
A. An MCA is a software dump; a TOC is a hardware register dump.
B. An MCA is a hardware register dump; a TOC initiates a software dump.
C. An MCA dump is for Windows systems; a TOC is for HP-UX systems.
D. An MCA dump is for HP-UX systems; a TOC is for Windows systems.
Answer: B

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NO.9 In a Linux environment, what is one of the components used to manage highly available solutions
offered by Virtual Server Environment (VSE)?
A. HP Workload Manager
B. HP OpenView Node Manager
C. HP Global Workload Manager
D. Performance Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.10 What does an amber blinking System LED on an Integrity rx2620 indicate?
A. System is in error state
B. Remote access is enabled
C. A system warning
D. Management Processor is powered off
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test processors on an Integrity
server?
A. WDIAG
B. IA64DIAG
C. CPUDIAG
D. PROCDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which front panel LEDs on an Integrity rx2620 can indicate an error?
A. Locator LED and System LED
B. Power LED and Diagnostic LEDs
C. System LED and Diagnostic LEDs
D. Diagnostic LEDs and Locator LED
Answer: C

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NO.13 How can you access the UUID on an entry-level HP Integrity server? (Select two.)
A. The UUID is written on the system information label of the server.
B. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the EFI Shell; then enter info sys.
C. At the Management Processor (MP) main menu, go to the Command Menu and enter id.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the System Configuration menu and select System UUID.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using integrated Lights-Out (iLO), the UUID displays
automatically.
Answer: AB

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NO.14 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test the memory of an Integrity
server?
A. MAPPER
B. SYSDIAG
C. MEMDIAG
D. DIMMDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.15 You want to load new firmware for the Management Processor (MP). Which command do you use to
verify a proper connection to an FTP server?
A. xd
B. bin
C. scp
D. xu
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which Management Processor (MP) command displays the physical location information of the
system?
A. SI
B. ID
C. LOC
D. SO
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test an HP Tachyon XL2 Fibre
Channel card?
A. IODIAG
B. FCDIAG
C. PERFVER
D. FCFUPDATE
Answer: A

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NO.18 You have limited access to the Management Processor (MP), but you have full access to the system
Baseboard Management Console (BMC). Which command do you issue in the BMC Command Line
Interface (CLI) to power off the system hardware?
A. cli> p 0
B. cli> rs 1
C. cli> pc 0
D. cli> loc 0
Answer: A

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NO.19 After you replace a memory module on an Integrity server, how do you clear the entries in the Page
Deallocation Table (PDT)?
A. Interrupt the boot, go to the Service Menu and enter pdt clear.
B. Interrupt the boot, go to the EFI shell, and then enter pdt clear.
C. Interrupt the boot, enter the MP:CM> CL command, and choose PDT.
D. After reboot, the system automatically deletes entries in the PDT without user input.
Answer: B

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NO.20 An Integrity rx2620 server with Windows Server 2003 is running terminal services but has stopped
responding. Which MP command do you use to shut down gracefully and power off the server?
A. rs -g
B. pc -g
C. rs -off
D. pc -off
Answer: B

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NO.21 You must back up all your Integrity server NVRAM configurations. Which backup utility is available for
download that can be used in the EFI shell?
A. bcfg
B. getmtc
C. nvrambkp
D. bcknvram
Answer: C

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NO.22 How can you determine the firmware version that is running on an HP Integrity system? (Select two.)
A. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, open the EFI shell and enter info fw.
B. At the MP main menu, open the Command Menu (cm) and enter firmware.
C. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware menu and select Version.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware Configuration menu and select Version.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using iLO, the firmware versions display automatically.
Answer: AE

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NO.23 Where does HP OpenVMS store all error information?
A. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
B. SYS$ERRLOG:SYSTEM.LOG
C. SYS$ERRORLOG:ERRLOG.SYS
D. SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
Answer: C

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NO.24 You just installed an Integrity rx2620 server. How do you set the MP and system times?
A. Use the MP date command to set time and date.
B. The time will be set automatically during system boot.
C. Use the EFI shell command time to set time and date of the MP.
D. Use the MP date command to set the date, and use the MP time command to set the time.
Answer: C

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NO.25 You are managing an Integrity rx2620 server that is located in a remote office. Which Management
Processor (MP) console command do you use to gather the state of the system and LEDs?
A. LED
B. VFP
C. ERRDUMP D. SYSSTAT
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which command in the iLO 2 controls access permissions for an Integrity rx6600 server?
A. PS
B. SO
C. PC
D. SD
Answer: B

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NO.27 The system is not responding normally. You have access to the Management Processor (MP). Which
command do you use to cycle the power?
A. ps
B. pc
C. rs
D. co
Answer: B

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NO.28 From the EFI Boot Manager, how can you get information about the installed memory DIMMs?
A. Go to the EFI Shell and enter: info mem
B. It is not possible to get the information offline.
C. The information displays automatically at the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Go to the System Configuration menu and choose Memory Configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Where is the diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 server located?
A. top
B. front
C. back
D. left side
E. right side
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which capability does the Management Processor (MP) in the Integrity rx2620 server provide?
A. offline hardware monitoring
B. hardware administration and management
C. remote HP-UX operating system installation
D. remote monitoring of server room conditions
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-P17
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Security Administration)
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Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 After running kctune executable_stack=2, what happens if MyProg executes code from the stack?
A. MyProg continues running without incident.
B. MyProg is killed before a single instruction can be executed.
C. MyProg continues, but logs a warning to /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log.
D. MyProg continues, but a warning message is logged to the kernel message buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Identify ways HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) can protect a system against poorly designed
applications. (Select three.)
A. PRM can limit the amount of memory applications may consume.
B. PRM can limit the amount of swap space applications may consume.
C. PRM can limit the amount of disk bandwidth applications may consume.
D. PRM can limit the amount of CPU resources applications may consume.
E. PRM can limit the amount of network bandwidth applications may consume.
F. PRM can limit the number of inbound network connections to configured applications.
Answer: ACD

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NO.3 Some open source software tools use the /usr/local/sbin and /usr/local/src directories. What should
you do with the /usr/local directory to maintain a secure system?
A. Verify that /usr/local and its subdirectories are not world writable.
B. Remove /usr/local/bin and /usr/local/sbin from the user's PATH variable.
C. Set permissions on /usr/local and its subdirectories to 047 so all users have access.
D. Use the swlist -l file | grep /usr/local command to see all files installed in those directories.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Identify where Encrypted Volume and File System (EVFS) protects data.
A. in transit
B. in the kernel
C. over the network
D. on the storage device
Answer: D

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NO.5 Encrypted Volume and File System (EVFS) uses which type of key to encrypt data?
A. digital certificate
B. RSA-1024 bit public key
C. RSA-2048 bit private key
D. AES-128 bit symmetric key
E. AES-256 bit asymmetric key
Answer: D

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NO.6 How can you grant NFS filesystem access to specific users as opposed to all users? (Select two.)
A. Specify the desired users to the /etc/dfs/sharetab entry for the mount point using the format
"-access=user1:user2:user3".
B. Add the desired users to an ACL and set the permissions of the shared filesystem such that only
members of the ACL can access the data.
C. Add the desired users to a group and set the permissions of the shared filesystem such that only
members of the group can access the data.
D. Add the desired users to a netgroup and specify the netgroup in the /etc/dfs/sharetab entry for the
mount point using the format "-access=netgroup".
Answer: BC

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NO.7 Which tool is recommended for providing file integrity information?
A. hash
B. cksum
C. crypt
D. md5sum
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which chatr syntax enables buffer overflow protection on a per-binary basis?
A. chatr +b enable <binary>
B. chatr -es enable <binary>
C. chatr +es enable <binary>
D. chatr +bo enable <binary>
E. chatr +es default <binary>
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which statement is true regarding an HP-UX VxFS filesystem using ACLs?
A. Default ACLs can only be placed on a file.
B. Default ACLs have the same owner as the owner of the file the ACL controls.
C. A directory's ACL can have default entries that are applied to files subsequently.
D. An ACL has an owner that can be different from the owner of the file the ACL controls.
Answer: C

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In order to restrict the access to the /etc/group file through FTP, which statement should be included in
the /etc/ftpd/ftpaccess file?
Identify the features of the TCP Wrappers product. (Select three.)
A. noaccess /etc/group
B. noretrieve /etc/group
C. accessdeny /etc/group
D.
suppressaccess
/etc/group
Answer: B

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A. enhances cryptographic authentication
B. provides protection against IP address spoofing
C. provides protection against hostname spoofing
D. provides data encryption on TCP "wrapped" connections
E. provides enhanced protection for RPC daemons using TCP/IP connections
F. provides enhanced security for daemons managed by inetd using TCP/IP connections
G. may be configured to provide enhanced security for any daemon using TCP/IP connections
Answer: BCF

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NO.10 After running /usr/sbin/pwck, the following output is displayed:
smbnull:*:101:101::/home/smbnull:/sbin/sh Login directory not found
What should you do to tighten the security?
A. Nothing - it is a valid system user ID.
B. Nothing - it is used by CIFS/Samba to represent "nobody" with a positive UID.
C. Edit the /etc/passwd entry to specify a dummy login directory and a false login shell.
D. Delete it from /etc/passwd. Opensource Samba installs it by default and it is not required on HP-UX.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which benefits does chroot provide to an application from a security perspective? (Select three.)
A. forces an application to start in a specified directory
B. allows the users to do a cd above the specified directory
C. prevents an application from starting in a specified directory
D. prevents the users from doing a cd above the specified directory
E. allows the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
F. prevents the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
Answer: ADE

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NO.12 What is a limitation of HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) as it applies to Denial of Service (DoS)
attacks?
A. Processes must be grouped before they can be managed.
B. PRM does not perform memory capping; only entitlement and selection.
C. PRM only applies to time-shared processes; real-time processes are not affected.
D. PRM requires a separate configuration file for time-shared and real-time processes.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Where can an HP-UX 11i v3 EVFS-encrypted backup tape from an HP Integrity rx7640 Server be
restored and decrypted?
A. only on the HP-UX system where the tape was created
B. on any HP-UX system where the symmetric encryption key resides
C. on any HP-UX system where the backup owner's public key resides
D. on any HP-UX system where the backup owner's public/private key pair resides
Answer: D

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NO.14 Where are Trusted Computing Services (TCS) protected EVFS keys stored?
A. HP-UX kernel
B. EVFS volume
C. system stable storage
D. HP-UX root file system
E. Trusted Platform Module
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the effect of the coreadm -e global-setid command?
A. edits the core dump file
B. reads and interprets the core dump file
C. enables the kernel for system crash dumps
D. enables setuid/setgid core dumps system wide
E. causes all running setuid programs to generate a core file
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which commands configure an application to operate within a secure compartment? (Select two.)
A. privrun
B. privedit
C. setrules
D. cmdprivadm
E. setfilexsec
Answer: DE

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NO.17 Which product encrypts data on zx2-based Integrity servers?
A. HP-UX VxFS filesystem
B. HP-UX Encryption Module
C. HP-UX Trusted Computing Services
D. HP-UX Integrity Trusted Platform Module
Answer: C

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NO.18 Click the Exhibit button.
You used the dmesg command to display the warning shown in the exhibit. Which kernel parameter
setting makes this
warning message appear?
A. kill_overflow is set to 1
B. exc_stack_code is set to 0
C. buffer_overflow is set to 1
D. executable_stack is set to 0
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-G11
Exam Name: HP (CCI Fundamentals for Solution Architects)
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Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which directory service is fully supported in CCI?
A. Novell eDirectory
B. Microsoft Active Directory (AD)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. HP OpenView Directory Service
Answer: B

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NO.2 When comparing a traditional PC environment to a "dynamic" implementation of HP's CCI solution in
which the end users are using thin clients as access devices, how is CCI different?
A. A blade PC can do a better job of rendering full-screen, full-motion video files than a desktop PC.
B. Routers on a public network are bi-directional, enabling the CCI solution to take advantage of
retroactive time stamping of all data transmissions.
C. Even if the access device is stolen or destroyed, an end user can quickly log back on from any
networked location and access his applications and data files.
D. Data files are stored on the access device in a dynamic implementation of CCI. However, they are
erased when the thin client is power cycled or rebooted, so the data is safE.
Answer: C

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NO.3 During installation of the HP SAM Web server, which account type does HP recommend to use as the
owner of the HP SAM Web site?
A. user account
B. service account
C. local administrator account
D. domain guest account
Answer: B

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NO.4 HP SIM displays a system type of UnmanageD. What are the possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The HP SIM Client is not installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block port 1433.
D. Community strings settings on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
aged system.
Answer: DE

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NO.5 Which command compiles a MIB for HP SIM?
A. compile
B. mcompile
C. mxmib -c
D. mcompile
Answer: D

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NO.6 CCI redefines the traditional networked desktop PC into three tiers. What are those three tiers?
A. network, storage and security
B. access, compute and resource
C. user, administrative and network
D. monitor, motherboard and keyboard
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which additional members are recommended to be added to the HP SAM Administrator access list?
(Select two.)
A. security group
B. service account
C. individual name(s)
D. domain administrator
E. local SAM server administrator
Answer: AC

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NO.8 Which version of RGS may CCI users deploy?
A. RHEL 4.0
B. PC Edition
C. Enterprise Edition
D. Windows Vista Edition
Answer: B

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NO.9 HP SIM displays a system type of Unknown. What are possible causes? (Select two.)
A. The wrong version of HP SIM Client is installeD.
B. The system may not be responding to ping requests.
C. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 80 and 8080.
D. Routers and switches on the network are configured to block ports 161 and 162.
E. WBEM (WMI) userID/passwords on the SIM CMS may not match the managed system.
Answer: DE

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NO.10 By design, which benefit does the CCI solution provide over a traditional PC?
A. improved resource security
B. improved off-line experience
C. increased total cost of ownership
D. improved video streaming performance
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which ports carry SNMP traffic in a standard environment or configuration? (Select two.)
A. 21
B. 22
C. 161
D. 162
E. 1433
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Which two HP PC Blade Switch features are used to provide redundant network connectivity? (Select
two.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Link Aggregation Protocol
C. Hot Standby Router Protocol
D. Split Multi-Link Trunk Protocol
E. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
Answer: AB

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NO.13 A customer has just installed and configured a complete HP CCI environment using HP SAM. When
the client attempts to connect to a known available resource from the SAM client on his local PC, he
receives a message that no resources are availablE. Upon further investigation, the SAM administrator
notices all resources in a given role go offline when users attempt to connect to that rolE.
What should the administrator do?
A. Verify that the SAM Web server is configured using failover.
B. Verify that there is a firewall exception for the SAM Registration ServicE.
C. Verify that there is a port exception for the client service port on the local PC.
D. Verify that the Remote Desktop Protocol is enabled on the blade and the user is granted access.
Answer: B

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NO.14 CCI users are unable to save their documents to a NAS. After checking the Active Directory setup, you
verify that all users have been placed in the proper OU, named CCIUsers, and the associated group
policy is properly redirecting the users' folders.
However, when any attempt is made to save a document, an Access Denied error is receiveD. Checking
the folder that the file should be saved to, you notice one of the NTFS permissions is incorrect, thereby
preventing the document from being saveD.
Which of the following permissions would allow CCI users to save their documents?
A. DesktopUsers: Allow List Folder Contents; This folder
B. SYSTEM: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
C. Administrators: Allow Full Control; This folder, subfolders and files
D. CCIUsers: Allow Read & Execute; This folder, subfolders and files
Answer: B

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NO.15 How do you configure the HP PC Blade Enclosure IA and HP PC Blade Switch to send alerts to the
HP System Insight Manager Console (HP SIM)? (Select two.)
A. configure HP System Insight Manager WBEM settings to include the IP addresses of the Integrated
Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
B. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch to use an IP address in the same subnet
as the HP System Insight Manager Server
C. configure HP System Insight Manager System Automatic Discovery Ping range to include the IP
ranges of the Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch
D. configure Integrated Administrator and HP PC Blade Switch SNMP community string and destination
IP address to match the HP System Insight Manager Server
Answer: CD

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NO.16 Which command registers new MIBs in HP SIM?
A. mxmib -a
B. mxmib -1
C. mcompile -a
D. mcompile -1
Answer: A

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NO.17 The CCI end users experience can be negatively impacted by network latency. At which point does
latency become typically unacceptable?
A. 1 to 100 ms
B. 100 to 200 ms
C. 200 to 250 ms
D. above 250 ms
Answer: C

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NO.18 In the CCI solution, what types of data travels between the client access device and the blade PC?
(Select two.)
A. encrypted keyboard and mouse input
B. hardware-encrypted streaming media
C. compressed screen images and audio
D. raw screen images and bi-directional audio
E. application streaming with interactive content
Answer: AC

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NO.19 How does CCI enable Business Continuity for end users? (Select two.)
A. Blade PCs consume only about 25-40 watts per blade; this power savings is a benefit to data center
managers responsible for the budget.
B. CCI enables image replacement and rebalancing, so all blade PC users will have the same network
performance no matter where they login from.
C. CCI makes full use of the Active Directory schema; therefore, users are always guaranteed to be
directed to the same blade PC regardless of what location they login from.
D. CCI uses Microsofts free Remote Desktop Connection (RDC) software, so end users can install it on
their personal computer to access their blade PC.
E. CCI blade PCs are distributed, so if power is lost to one enclosure, rack or data center, users can
quickly be reallocated to blade PCs in another enclosure, rack, or data center.
Answer: DE

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NO.20 HP Sygate Security Agent is installed and enabled on the access devicE. Which application and port
exception is required to enable the HP SAM Web client to communicate to available resources?
A. MstsC. exe:3389
B. IExplorE. exe:3389
C. DaesvC. exe:47777
D. HPrdcw32.exe:3389
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-A02
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Advanced System Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 152 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 When a connection is established with inetd for a service, inetd runs the appropriate server specified in
the /etc/inetd.conf file and waits for other connections. Which HP-UX application can be used in addition
to inetd to verify whether a host or network can execute a service provided in inetd.conf?
A. IPsec
B. IPfilter
C. TCP wrappers
D. Security Advisor
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which feature allows concurrent access of NFS and CIFS clients on a file without corrupting it?
A. NFS v4
B. Unified File Cache
C. Memory-Mapped Access
D. CIFS File System Module (CFSM)
Answer: D

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NO.3 Neighbor discovery is a component of which protocol?
A. IPv6
B. ARP
C. OSPF
D. DHCP
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the configuration file for the HP CIFS Server product?
A. /etc/opt/samba/smb.conf
B. /etc/opt/samba/cifs.conf
C. /etc/opt/samba/swat.conf
D. /etc/opt/samba/samba.conf
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature allows the LDAP-UX client to retrieve user information from LDAP Directory Servers that
do not support the posixAccount objectclass (RFC2307)?
A. SASL
B. attribute mapping
C. configuration profile
D. service search descriptors
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which command uses NTP to keep the local system clock in sync with other nodes on the network?
A. /usr/sbin/ntpsync
B. /usr/sbin/ntpdate
C. /usr/sbin/ntpscan
D. /usr/sbin/ntpd.conf
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which variable holds the number of arguments passed into a function inside of a KSH script?
A. $!
B. $?
C. $#
D. $$
E. $0
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which command prints out the network routing table?
A. netstat
B. nwmgr
C. ifconfig
D. lanscan
E. lanadmin
Answer: A

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NO.9 On an HP-UX system, an empty cron.deny file exists but there is not a cron.allow file. Who can use
cron in this situation?
A. nobody
B. only root
C. everybody
D. only system accounts
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which commands create a file with paths to all files named bob and display the files on the screen as
they are identified? (Select two.)
A. find / -name bob | tee list
B. find / -name bob | tail -f >list
C. find / -name bob | tail list >list
D. find / -name bob &>list tail -f list
E. find / -name bob >list & tail -f list
Answer: AE

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button. The Exhibit shows one possible output of a processor information command.
Which command can be executed to get processor information from an Integrity system running HP-UX?
A. procinfo
B. cpu_info
C. machinfo
D. cpuinfo -v
E. procinfo -v
Answer: C

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NO.12 What is the result of the following command? find / -atime +14 -size +1000c -exec rm -i {} \;
A. Search for all files more than 14 hours old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
B. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 10 characters. Prompt the user to
delete each file found that matches the search criteria.
C. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 bytes. Prompt the user to delete
each file found that matches the search criteria.
D. Search for all files more than two weeks old that are larger than 1000 characters. Prompt the user to
rename each file found that matches the search criteria.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which command performs formatting of binary data generated by nettl?
A. nroff -e
B. netformat -a
C. nettl -l filename
D. netfmt -f filename
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which command talks directly to the sendmail daemon and other SMTP servers to verify connectivity?
A. telnet host 23
B. telnet host 80
C. telnet host 25
D. telnet host 110
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which program initially starts rpcbind at boot?
A. /sbin/init.d/net
B. /sbin/init.d/named
C. /sbin/init.d/nfs.core
D. /sbin/init.d/rpcbind
Answer: C

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NO.16 The execution scripts for rwhod and xntpd are configured in which configuration file?
A. /etc/rc.config.d/netconf
B. /etc/rc.config.d/mailsvrs
C. /etc/rc.config.d/namesvrs
D. /etc/rc.config.d/netdaemons
Answer: D

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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button. What is the output after executing this script?
A. Last
B. First
C. Third
D. Second
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the first step when creating an NIS Master server?
A. nisinit -a
B. update all ASCII source files
C. /sbin/init.d/ypinit start
D. /sbin/init.d/nis.server start
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are the benefits of IPQoS? (Select two.)
A. policy-based bandwidth provisioning
B. automatic configuration of IP interfaces
C. prioritize only inbound network bandwidth
D. prioritize only outbound network bandwidth
E. prioritize both outbound and inbound network bandwidth
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Which features are supported by the Red Hat Directory Server? (Select three.)
A. ADSI API
B. NTLM authentication
C. multi-master replication
D. replication with Novell eDirectory
E. X.509 certificate based authentication
F. secure communications using SSL/TLS
Answer: CEF

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Exam Code: HP0-918
Exam Name: HP (HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?
A.logical lock
B.device lock
C.lock names
D.physical lock
Correct:C

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NO.2 Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A.redundant paths
B.multipath devices
C.device locking mechanism
D.multiple device connections
Correct:B

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NO.3 What are the benefits of enhanced incremental over conventional incremental backups?
(Select two.)
A.higher backup throughput
B.detects renamed and removed files
C.backup detects files with attribute changes
D.backups are more secure due to better encryption
E.files with longer names are detected and backed up
Correct:B C

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NO.4 Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that
hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process?
A.Hard drive
B.Video card
C.Network card
D.Host bus adapter
Correct:A

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NO.5 What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? (Select three.)
A.device
B.filenames
C.hostname
D.mountpoint
E.description
F.rawdisk sections
Correct:C D E

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NO.6 Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?
A.omnicheck
B.omnihealth
C.omnidbcheck
D.omnihealthcheck
Correct:D

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NO.7 What is a media pool?
A.a collection of media of the same age
B.a logical collection of media that belong together
C.a concept that enables faster backup and restore
D.a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Correct:B

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NO.8 By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A.obdb.dat
B.obrindex.dat
C.obdatafiles.dat
D.obdbrecovery.dat
Correct:B

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NO.9 How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment?
A.Use the omnidlc command.
B.Use the devbra collector.
C.Use the omnitrig process.
D.Use the Web Reporting GUI.
Correct:A

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NO.10 Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
A.Media Agent and Disk Agent
B.Media Agent and Media Agent
C.Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
D.Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Correct:B

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NO.11 A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each
host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the
robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?
A.This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need physical access to the
robotics controller.
B.Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations for the local
drive.
C.Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations.
D.Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared network control of the
robotics.
Correct:C

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NO.12 Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session?
A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
B.the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client
C.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
D.the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
Correct:D

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NO.13 Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape
library?
A.lma
B.bma
C.uma
D.cma
E.mma
Correct:C

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NO.14 Which interconnect technology is supported for shared tape device resources in a cluster
where the Cell Manager is installed in the cluster?
A.SCSI
B.Ethernet
C.Fibre Channel
D.SATA and SCSI
Correct:C

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NO.15 What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?
A.50GB
B.100GB
C.200GB
D.600GB
Correct:A

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NO.16 You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector
SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem?
A.Configure host access to the LUN.
B.Install the required device driver for the library.
C.Disable the RSM service on the agent system.
D.Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices.
Correct:D

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NO.17 The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A.client only
B.cell manager only
C.client and cell manager
D.dedicated installation server
Correct:B

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NO.18 How can you configure a mixed media library with Data Protector?
A.Set up a MultiPath device.
B.Set up one library definition per media type.
C.Set the media type manually on the library slots.
D.DP automatically configures the different media slots.
Correct:B

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NO.19 What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to
version 5.5?
A.Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed.
B.Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level.
C.Install the latest Windows NT service pack.
D.Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version.
Correct:D

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NO.20 What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?
A.RMI over LAN
B.remote agents
C.stream sockets
D.pipe mechanisms
Correct:C

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