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Exam Code: 000-Z01

Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z System Programmer Mastery)

000-Z01 (IBM System z System Programmer Mastery) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-Z01.html

NO.1 Which of the following is a major difference between hierarchical and relational DBMS?
A.Type of users with access
B.Navigational vs. non navigational
C.Concurrent vs. non concurrent multiple program access
D.Support for single vs. multiple application languages
Correct:B

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NO.2 A company runs a billing application for all its divisions on a single corporate system. However,
the data is separate for each division. The data sets for each division use a different high level
qualifier. What must change to run the billing application for one division versus another division?
A.The JCL must be changed to use the correct dataset names.
B.The program must be recompiled to change the DDNAMEs used.
C.The JCL must be changed to include the correct high level qualifier in the DDNAME.
D.The program must be recompiled in order to change the dataset names in the source code.
Correct:A

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NO.3 A mainframe customer wants to add a web site for customer orders. They plan to tightly couple
the web site to their existing back office z/OS applications. Which of the following describes an
effective implementation?
A.Bring in another System z machine
B.Implement a firewall on the mainframe and use WebSphere to enable the web site on a Linux server.
C.Implement a firewall on a new, small Unix server and use WebSphere to enable the web site on the
mainframe.
D.Implement a firewall on a new Windows XP server and use WebSphere to enable the web site on a new
Windows XP server.
Correct:C

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NO.4 If a userid is ZTEST1, then what is entered in the Data Set List Utility (generally option 3.4) for
"Dsname Level" to list all data sets with the high level qualifier of the userid?
A.ZTEST1
B."ZTEST1"
C.*.ZTEST1*
D.'ZTEST1*'
Correct:A

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NO.5 Which of the following could be used to automatically establish communication between the
operating system and primary job entry subsystem during IPL?
A.JES
B.IODF
C.Master JCL procedure
D.Communications Server
Correct:C

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NO.6 What is the facility that allows mainframes to be partitioned into LPARs?
A.z/OS
B.PR/SM
C.Virtual Storage
D.Coupling Facility
Correct:B

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NO.7 Storage protect keys protect storage in conjunction with what other feature on the mainframe?
A.LPAR (Logical Partition)
B.ASM (Auxiliary Storage Manager)
C.APF (Authorized Program Facility)
D.PR/SM (Processor Resource / System Manager)
Correct:C

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NO.8 What master catalog entry relates to the name of a user catalog?
A.HLQ
B.VVDS
C.ALIAS
D.Alternate index
Correct:C

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NO.9 In the ISPF Edit panel, there are fields named PROJECT, GROUP, TYPE, and MEMBER. What
information do these fields specify?
A.DSNAME
B.DDNAME
C.PARM field
D.DD Statement
Correct:A

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NO.10 Which of the following are the types of EDIT commands?
A.Menu and Line
B.Line and Data
C.Primary and Line
D.Primary and Secondary
Correct:C

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NO.11 The syntax: //INPUT DD * is used for what purpose?
A.To specify that this DDNAME refers to a null dataset
B.To specify that this DDNAME refers to the same dataset as the prior DD statement
C.To specify that the data is contained in the JCL stream immediately after this DD statement
D.To specify that the DDNAME refers to the same dataset as the DD statement with DDNAME of INPUT
in the prior job step
Correct:C

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NO.12 PC keyboards do not have a "PA1" key, 3270 emulators map some keys to "PA1". What is the
"PA1" key used for in TSO and ISPF?
A.Terminate the program currently running.
B.Terminate ISPF to return to the TSO READY prompt.
C.Pause a program so that data will not continue to scroll.
D.Clear the screen to allow the next screen of data to display.
Correct:A

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NO.13 Which of the following describes relative access speed for z9 major storage types?
A.Tape is faster than DASD
B.DASD is faster than cache
C.Real memory is faster than DASD
D.Optical storage is faster than cache
Correct:C

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NO.14 If a data set with text information is created using ISPF edit, the dataset is copied to magnetic
tape, and the magnetic tape is then copied to a PC (e.g. Windows), what will a user see who
displays the file on the PC?
A.Clear text, but with punctuation corrupted
B.The exact same text as seen in ISPF on the mainframe
C.An odd mixture of unintelligible and unprintable characters
D.The results of the encryption used in every mainframe data set
Correct:C

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NO.15 ISPF uses various function keys. Which of the following describes the mapping of these keys?
A.Different in every ISPF menu
B.Determined by operating system
C.Fixed by ISPF and cannot be changed
D.May be changed using the ISPF SETTINGS function
Correct:D

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NO.16 What is this and how can it be executed?
A.It's a JCL procedure and cannot be executed.
B.It's a job and may be submitted with a SUBMIT command.
C.It's a JCL procedure and can be executed with a submit command.
D.It's a JCL procedure and must be invoked in a job with an EXEC statement.
Correct:D

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NO.17 A list of stored TSO commands to perform a particular function is called which of the following?
A.CLIST
B.Compiled code
C.Executable code
D.Stored procedure
Correct:A

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NO.18 What is the relationship of the Layered Network Models of TCP/IP, OSI, and SNA?
A.SNA is an internal construction in z/OS and does not allow for end points.
B.They are the same except that the OSI model inverts the layers top to bottom.
C.They have the same layers with the exact same functions in each layer, but the names are different.
D.The layers are conceptually similar but differ in name and details of what functions are in which layers.
Correct:D

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NO.19 In UNIX, the thread is the smallest element that performs work. What is an equivalent in z/OS?
A.Task
B.Daemon
C.TASKLIB
D.Process
Correct:A

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NO.20 Which of the following z/OS data set organization is most like a UNIX directory?
A.VSAM RRDS
B.Sequential data set
C.Partitioned data set
D.VSAM Indexed data set
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 000-994

Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ V6.0,System Administration)

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NO.1 A WebSphere MQ System Administrator enters this MQSC command "dis
chstatus(QM1.TO.QM2)" on a UNIX Queue Manager and receives this output. AMQ8417: Display
Channel Status details. CHANNEL(QM1.TO.QM2) CHLTYPE(SDR) CONNAME(QM2) CURRENT
RQMNAME( ) STATUS(RETRYING) SUBSTATE( ) XMITQ(QM2) Administrator needs to locate more
detailed information on the reason for the retrying channel status? Where can this information be
found?
A.In the system error log directory
B.In the log file AMQERR04.LOG
C.In the log file MQERRLG1
D.In the appropriate queue manager's errors log files
Correct:D

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NO.2 What userid or group always has access to all WebSphere MQ Objects on UNIX platforms?
A.mqadmin
B.wmqadmin
C.mqm
D.root
Correct:C

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NO.3 What is the best way to protect WebSphere MQ message data from being read by unauthorized
parties while it travels over an unsecured network?
A.Configure the WebSphere Channels to use SSL security
B.Allow only locally binding applications instead of WebSphere MQ Clients
C.Set the "MQSNOAUT" variable to FALSE
D.WebSphere MQ data can never be read by unauthorized parties
Correct:A

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NO.4 What service object can utilize the MQSC script command DISPLAY SVSTATUS to display the
status of running service objects?
A.COMMAND object
B.LISTENER object
C.SERVER object
D.QUEUE object
Correct:C

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NO.5 The message flow performance between two Queue Managers is slower than expected. An
application is using a MQPUT call with parameter "MQPER_PERSISTENCE_AS_Q_DEF". The
messages are put onto a local Remote Queue. The properties are detailed below. The Application
messages are not required to survive system failures or restart of the queue managers. dis
qremote('MyAppQueue') all AMQ8409: Display Queue details. QUEUE(MyAppQueue)
TYPE(QREMOTE) ALTDATE(2005-09-21) ALTTIME(13.10.46) CLUSNL( ) CLUSTER( ) CLWLPRTY(3)
CLWLRANK(3) DEFBIND(OPEN) DEFPRTY(5) DEFPSIST(YES) DESCR( My Application Message
Queue on Remote Server) PUT(ENABLED) RQMNAME( ) RNAME(MyAppQueue) SCOPE(QMGR)
XMITQ(QM2) What is the best MQSC command the WebSphere MQ Administrator can use to
improve the message flow performance between the two Queue Managers?
A.No command is valid, as this is an application tuning issue.
B.ALTER QREMOTE('MyAppQueue') CLWLRANK(9)
C.ALTER QREMOTE('MyAppQueue') DEFPRTY(9)
D.ALTER QREMOTE('MyAppQueue') DEFPSIST(NO)
Correct:D

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NO.6 A LINUX Queue Manager was in the middle of processing a large unit of work when the server's
power supply was interrupted. The power problem has been repaired and the server has restarted.
What will the WebSphere MQ System Administrator need to do to ensure any uncommitted
Persistent Messages are processed?
A.Contact the application team and ask them to resend the last batch of messages
B.Use the CHECKPT function to add or delete a record in the BSDS checkpoint queue
C.Delete the Log records written since the last checkpoint
D.Nothing, as the uncommitted persistent messages put or got in a transaction are rolled back during
restart
Correct:D

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NO.7 An AIX WebSphere MQ queue manager 'QM1' owns a channel 'QM1.TO.QM2'. The parameters of
the channel are as follows: CHANNEL(QM1.TO.QM2) CHLTYPE(SDR) ALTDATE(2005-09-26)
ALTTIME(16.51.53) BATCHHB(0) BATCHINT(0) BATCHSZ(50) COMPHDR(NONE) COMPMSG(NONE)
CONNAME(QM2) CONVERT(NO) DESCR(Sender Channel to QM2) DISCINT(6000) HBINT(300)
KAINT(AUTO) LOCLADDR( ) LONGRTY(999999999) LONGTMR(1200) MAXMSGL(4194304)
MCANAME( ) MCATYPE(PROCESS) MCAUSER( ) MODENAME( ) MONCHL(QMGR) MSGDATA( )
MSGEXIT( ) NPMSPEED(FAST) PASSWORD( ) RCVDATA( ) RCVEXIT( ) SCYDATA( )
SCYEXIT(svr_sec_exit2(ChannelExit))) SENDDATA( ) SENDEXIT( ) SEQWRAP(999999999)
SHORTRTY(10) SHORTTMR(60) SSLCIPH( ) SSLPEER( ) STATCHL(QMGR) TPNAME( )
TRPTYPE(TCP) USERID( ) XMITQ(QM2) The remote server has just been upgraded and the Queue
Manager rebuilt. Unfortunately, all of the WebSphere MQ objects where only defined with the
default parameters. The 'QM1.TO.QM2' channel is started and its status is "RETRYING". Which of
the following actions is most likely to correct the problem with the channel pair?
A.Set the receiver channel's message channel agent user attribute correctly
B.Set the receiver channel's CipherSpecs attribute correctly
C.Set the receiver channel's Security Exit attribute correctlyC.Set the receiver channel's Security Exit
attribute correctlyC.Set the receiver channel's Security Exit attribute correctly
D.Clear all messages from the QM2 Transmission QueueD.Clear all messages from the QM2
Transmission QueueD.Clear all messages from the QM2 Transmission Queue
Correct:C

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NO.8 The registry entries of a Windows Queue Managers named 'QM2' have been corrupted. While
attempting to start QM2, WebSphere MQ is unable to read the "LogPath' stanza. If WebSphere MQ
is installed in the \IBM\WebSphere MQ\ directory, then in which directory will the AMQERR01.LOG
be updated as error messages are generated?
A.In the \var\mqm\qmgrs\QM2\errors subdirectory
B.In the \IBM\WebSphere MQ\qmgrs\@SYSTEM\errors subdirectory
C.In the \IBM\WebSphere MQ\errors subdirectory
D.In the \IBM\WebSphere MQ\qmgrs\QM2\errors subdirectory
Correct:C

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NO.9 An application development team is coding a tool to send PCF commands to a WebSphere MQ
Queue Manager on HP-UX . The new tool is to administer WebSphere MQ, but the application
developers do not want to write PCF messages and require an easy method of handling error
conditions. What is the best IBM provided application programming interface called to perform
this function?
A.WebSphere MQ Administration Interface
B.Message Queuing Interface
C.Application Messaging Interface
D.PCF Programming Interface
Correct:A

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NO.10 A company has a Queue Manager configured with Linear Logging enabled. The log files are
mounted on a separate disk, the old log files are regularly archived to ensure sufficient disk space.
What procedure should the WebSphere MQ Administrator follow after altering an empty local
queue to ensure this change is not lost by a media failure before the Queue Manager is next
restarted?
A.Recreate the Queue Manager to use Circular Logging.
B.Increase the frequency of the regularly archiving of the log files.
C.Media images are recorded automatically by the Queue Manager, the WebSphere MQ System
Administer does not need a procedure.
D.Use the control command to record the new local queue's definition.
Correct:D

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NO.11 Which commands would disable the Object Authority Manager on AIX for Queue Manager
"BROADWAY"?
A.endmqm -c BROADWAY; export MQSNOAUT=yes; strmqm BROADWAY;
B.strmqm BROADWAY; export MQSNOAUT=yes
C.export MQSNOAUT=yes; crtmqm BROADWAY
D.export MQSNOAUT=yes; strmqm BROADWAY
Correct:C

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NO.12 A company is using only WebSphere MQ V6.0 in their complex distributed network. All
messages sent by one application are missing. The WebSphere MQ administrator suspects that
due to an application programming error, the messages are caught in an infinite loop. Which of
the following methods will best help the WebSphere MQ administrator track down the missing
messages?
A.Use Trace-route messaging
B.Enable Activity recording
C.Run the strmqtrc control command to enable tracing on all Queue Managers
D.Check all the Dead Letter Queues on all the Queue Managers
Correct:A

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NO.13 A trigger monitor needs to be started and stopped when the queue manager starts and ends.
Where in the WebSphere MQ Explorer V6.0 tooling can this trigger monitor service be defined?
A.On the advanced tab
B.On the listeners tab
C.On the queue manager properties
D.On the services tab
Correct:D

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NO.14 What attribute is required on the ALTER CHANNEL(Channel Name) command?
A.CONNAME
B.CHLTYPE
C.TRPTYPE
D.XMITQ
Correct:B

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NO.15 A Unix Server has just restarted after a media failure. When the queue manager startup
command was entered, the error message "QUEUE MANAGER UNAVAILABLE" was returned.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?
A.The mqs.ini does not reference the queue manager with the correct information for locating its files.
B.During the media failure, the Queue Manager was dropped from the queue-sharing group.
C.During the media failure, the Queue Manager was suspended from processing messages.
D.The 'mqm' User Group was damaged during the media failure.
Correct:A

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NO.16 Within a WebSphere MQ based application, all of the following types of reports are available
EXCEPT:
A.Confirm on Arrival (COA)
B.Confirm on Delivery (COD)
C.Receiving Application Processing (RAP)
D.Expiry
Correct:C

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NO.17 Which command will reload the copy of the key repository which is held in memory, without
restarting a channel process?
A.REFRESH SECURITY TYPE(KEY)
B.REFRESH SECURITY TYPE(SSL)
C.RESET SECURITY TYPE(KEY)
D.RESET SECURITY TYPE(SSL)
Correct:B

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NO.18 A WebSphere MQ System Administrator desires to change the location of the log files only for
existing UNIX Queue Manger "saturn.queue.manager". The new location of the log files is to be
"/home/mqm/logs". What is the best way to accomplish this task?
A.Edit file /var/mqm/mqs.ini so "LogDefaultPath=/home/mqm/logs"
B.Edit file /var/mqm/qmgrs/saturn!queue!manager/qm.ini so "LogPath=/home/mqm/logs"
C.Issue control command "amqmdain reg saturn.queue.manager -c add -s Log -v LogPath value
=/home/mqm/logs"
D.Issue the control command "crtmqm saturn.queue.manager -ld /home/mqm/logs"
Correct:B

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NO.19 Which two of the following are services provided by the SSL features of WebSphere MQ?
A.Confidentiality
B.Application-Level Security
C.Message Compression
D.Data Recovery
E.Data Integrity
Correct:A E

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NO.20 Which parameter setting on the server connection channel requires a WebSphere MQ Client
application to have personal digital certificates?
A.CONVERT(YES)
B.SECURITY(YES)
C.SSLCAUTH(YES)
D.SSLCAUTH(REQUIRED)
Correct:D

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Exam Code: 000-019

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation)

000-019 (IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-019.html

NO.1 Which three databases are supported for storing the topology database within IBM Tivoli Network
Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 8.2
B. Oracle 10g
C. MySQL 4.0
D. MySQL 5.0
E. MSSQL 2000
F. PostgreSQL 8.3
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 On an AIX 5.3 system where there is no supported Web browser installed, what are the two correct
commands to run the installer in order to complete a custom IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition
installation in a supported mode? (Choose two.)
A. <path to installation files>/install.sh
B. <path to installation files>/launchpad.sh
C. <path to installation files>/launchpad.exe
D. <path to installation files>/install.sh i console
E. <path to installation files>/install.sh f <path to silent install file>
Answer: DE

IBM test answers   000-019   000-019

NO.3 Which file needs to be configured to set the precedence of the events sent for Root Cause Analysis?
A. AmosSchema.cfg
B. NcoGateInserts.cfg
C. EntityEventToAlert.rule
D. SuppressContainedAlerts.rule
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which script must be run on the Tivoli Integrated Portal server to extract the events from OMNIbus so
that data in reports can be viewed?
A. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/configClient.sh
B. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/startTCRserver.sh
C. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_currentStatus
D. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_polldata_pruning
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Domain name is valid during an installation process?
A. itnmdomain
B. itnm-domain
C. ITNMDOMAIN
D. ITNM-DOMAIN
Answer: C

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NO.6 When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which network consideration
requires the segmentation of the network into more than one domain?
A. overlapping 1-1 NAT address spaces
B. Multiprotocol Label Switching VPN network operation
C. overlapping non Network Address Translation (NAT) address spaces
D. Regional Network Operations Centers performing follow the Sun support in Houston, Paris, and Tokyo
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which field is required to be set in an event so that the Event Gateway passes it through to IBM Tivoli
Network Manager IP Edition for further processing on a default installation?
A. Node
B. Severity
C. AlertKey
D. LocalNodeAlias
Answer: D

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NO.8 Click the Exhibit button.
A Network Administrator has configured the Scope.
Which two IP addresses will be deemed in-scope during a discovery of the network? (Choose two.)
A. 20.20.5.1
B. 20.20.5.63
C. 10.10.0.68
D. 172.168.0.5
E. 192.168.25.15
Answer: BD

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NO.9 When planning distributed IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition( Tivoli Network Manager)
deployment on a small network, what is the minimum memory requirement for the server where Tivoli
Network Manager core components are installed?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: B

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NO.10 When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which three factors require a
custom installation rather than a default? (Choose three.)
A. there is a Failover requirement
B. the requirement to install as a non-root user
C. firewall ACLs in operation within the managed network
D. system restrictions preventing the launching of X-windows
E. the Netcool Common Information Model database type is Oracle
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance is required
Answer: AEF

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NO.11 A customer has a network with 3,000 devices, and each device has around 100 interfaces spread
across the world. The expected growth of the network is 10% every year, that is 300 devices with 100
interfaces.
What is the best type of installation of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)
based on current scenario?
A. one Tivoli Network Manager server with multiple pollers
B. two Tivoli Network Manager servers with multiple pollers
C. one Tivoli Network Manager server without multiple pollers
D. two Tivoli Network Manager servers without multiple pollers
Answer: A

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NO.12 Where is the Netcool Common Information Model (NCIM) database created with the script,
'create_db2_database.sh NCIM ncim'?
A. the NCIM database on the remote DB2 and the user ncim
B. the NCIM database on the local DB2 and the user db2inst1
C. the NCIM database on the local DB2 using the DB2 user ncim
D. the NCIM database on the remote DB2 using the DB2 user ncim
Answer: C

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NO.13 Given a customer network with five static Network Address Translation private address space areas of
which two overlap, what is the minimum number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installations
required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which browser version is supported when a client operating system is AIX 6.1 and using Web
applications of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition?
A. Mozilla Firefox 1.5
B. Mozilla Firefox 2.0
C. Mozilla Firefox 3.0
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the minimum memory requirement for a server when planning a single server IBM Tivoli
Network Manager IP Edition deployment on a small network where all the required components are on
the same server?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the primary issue with installing and running IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition as a root
user on a single AIX system?
A. The system will not run properly as a root user.
B. There are no issues related to installing as root on AIX.
C. Some Tivoli components cannot be installed as root user on AIX.
D. There are X-windows libraries that cannot be run as a root user without creating a security problem.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two tasks need to be performed to prepare the Collector Framework for discovery? (Choose
two.)
A. start the collector
B. configure the collector
C. enable the Collector Stitchers
D. initialize the database connections for seeding
E. ensure that the ping discovery process is running
Answer: AB

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NO.18 Which three items affect the number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition domains? (Choose
three.)
A. discovery scheduling
B. installation username
C. administrative boundaries
D. IP address space structure
E. seeding method for the discovery
F. estimated number of network entities
Answer: CDF

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NO.19 Which browser version is supported in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition for a successful installer
launchpad?
A. Safari 3.0
B. Firefox 2.0
C. Internet Explorer 5
D. Netscape Navigator 8
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which IP address must be specified as Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway when adding a
new NAT Gateway in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)?
A. Public IP address of NAT Gateway
B. Private IP address of NAT Gateway
C. IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
D. Default Gateway IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which permission is required before the IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition installation runs in a
non-global zone on a Solaris environment?
A. PRIV_PROC_EXEC
B. PRIV_PROC_FORK
C. PRIV_SYS_NETCONFIG
D. PRIV_NET_RAWACCESS
Answer: D

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NO.22 Before installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition on 64-bit Windows 2008 or 2003 Server,
which version of Windows Installer is required for a successful installation?
A. Version 4.0
B. Version 4.1
C. Version 4.4
D. Version 4.5
Answer: D

IBM   000-019   000-019   000-019

NO.23 Which post installation task needs to be performed to allow a non-root user to start IBM Tivoli Network
Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager) when it has been installed as root on a UNIX system?
A. Tivoli Network Manager cannot be installed as the root user.
B. Re-install as a non-root user and run the processes as non-root.
C. Run the appropriate script to set permissions for the non-root user.
D. No tasks need to be performed as the system always runs as non-root.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which three databases are supported by IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition? (Choose three.)
A. DB2 7.2
B. DB2 9.1
C. Oracle 10g
D. Oracle 11g
E. MSSQL 2005
F. Postgres SQL
Answer: BCD

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NO.25 Which product is affected by installing IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition on UNIX as a root user
on the same server?
A. CCMDB
B. OMNIbus
C. Tivoli Integrated Portal
D. IBM Tivoli Business Service Manager
Answer: D

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NO.26 When deploying IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition, what is a valid consideration when
determining if the installation method should be launchpad?
A. whether the deployment requires a custom or default installation
B. the location of the Netcool Common Information Model database
C. whether $NCHOME has been defined as an environmental variable
D. whether the server meets the prerequisites for a launchpad installation
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which three items add to the normal expected deployment time? (Choose three.)
A. seeding from a file and ping sweeping
B. multiple global SNMP community strings
C. non-contiguous or unmanageable networks
D. devices outside of the standard device support list
E. collector-based discovery from external data source
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance
Answer: CDE

IBM   000-019   000-019 answers real questions

NO.28 When defining a new chassis with interfaces and connecting this to an existing entity using the
PresetLayer functionality, which three items need to be provided? (Choose three.)
A. neighbor information
B. containment information
C. the ClassName for the new entity
D. define the agents to run against the device
E. the SNMP/telnet credentials for the new entity
F. entity definitions for the chassis and interfaces
Answer: ABF

IBM   000-019   000-019   000-019

NO.29 Which two generic types of data sources can be used to provide input to the discovery system using
the Collector Framework? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. CSV
C. Java
D. SNMP
E. Database
Answer: AB

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NO.30 In a customer network with the NOC network, three private address spaces behind static Network
Address Translation gateways, and four overlapping VPN address spaces, how many installations are
required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M27

Exam Name: IBM (Build Forge Technical Sales Mastery Date)

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NO.1 What are the main business values that Build Forge brings to an organization?
A.secure, centralized role based console, developer self-service, accelerated build times
B.reduced cost of delivery, increased product quality, decreased time to market, and management
decision and support
C.Intelligent Bill of Materials, parallel processing through threading, and dynamic server management
D.dependency management, makefile acceleration, and reduced delivery costWArialTimes New
RomanZX
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which stage of the typical application development process is NOT automated in Build Forge?
A.Unit Testing
B.Requirements
C.Release
D.PackagingWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

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NO.3 How does Build Forge improve a customers software build-and-release process?
A.by facilitating centralized collaboration
B.by providing up-to-date compilers and debuggers
C.by dynamically producing product documentation
D.by facilitating scripted unit testingWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which component of the Build Forge functional architecture provides a pre-flight build capability that
allows you to selectively choose local file changes and preview the build results before committing the file
changes to source code control?
A.IDE plug-in
B.MMC plug-in
C.Staging Tool
D.Build Forge AgentWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

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NO.5 A software development company has a major customer that requires a previous release of their
software to be modified to run on Windows Vista.
Which software build-and-release best practice addresses this issue?
A.building early and often
B.build reproducibility
C.automation and integration
D.link to deployment environmentsWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-438

Exam Name: IBM (Applying Fundamentals of Tivoli Business Automation Mgt2008)

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NO.1 What are the two best ways to identify and prioritize functional requirements for an automation?
(Choose two.)
A. based on personal expertise
B. based on current clients with similar networks
C. based on the client interviews reviewing their pain points
D. based on a clear understanding of the client's business processes
E. based on talking with the operators and asking them what they want
Answer: CD

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NO.2 After business requirements and processes have been identified, which steps are taken to automate
that process?
A. assess the specific steps required, determine critical processes, inform the client
B. determine critical processes, choose a subset of processes for a pilot, inform the client
C. assess the specific steps required, interview business process owners, inform the client
D. define the specific steps of the manual process, understand input and output functions of each step
within the process, determine steps suitable for automation
Answer: D

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NO.3 A client core business is to supply widgets to the customer. An order desk is located in Florida, where
desktops are used by employees for general Lotus Notes e-mail, Lotus Sametime, and an Order
Application from customers who call in orders by telephone.
The client has a data center located in Oregon. It contains a distributed environment running Lotus Notes
and Lotus Sametime and a distributed environment running JD Edwards EnterpriseOne ERP. It has a
DB2 database on a mainframe that contains their product information and stock, and a distributed
environment that runs the Order Application.
The client has a distribution center in Illinois. It contains a distributed front-end for the Order Application,
which prints orders and allows the distribution center to update the amount of stock. Orders are fulfilled by
the distribution center and mailed directly to the customer. Stock is also received and updated by the
distribution center.
The IT group responsible for the Order Application wants to implement Change Management and target
the Order Application as the first application to manage.
Who are two Order Applications customers? (Choose two.)
A. the distribution center in Illinois
B. customers who call in their orders
C. the mainframe system administrators
D. end users in the order desk environment
E. the Order Application distributed environment system administrators
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which two steps should be performed after the interviews are completed and all third-party integrations
are identified? (Choose two.)
A. create a hardware solutions guide
B. review the list of client third-party applications
C. identify the relationships with support organizations
D. identify the operational support dashboard methodology
E. review the list of proposed business automation products
Answer: BE

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NO.5 Which two pieces of information are mapped against functional paths within an organization? (Choose
two.)
A. roles
B. stakeholders
C. requirements
D. responsibilities
E. IBM Tivoli products
Answer: AD

IBM certification   000-438   000-438

NO.6 Which action is necessary for analyzing the underlying applications supporting a client's legacy
process?
A. contact the vendor for customer support information
B. determine the vendor, revision, and customer subject matter expert of each underlying application
C. determine the best practice implementation recommendations of each underlying legacy application
D. contact the customer subject matter expert to determine possible integration points for integration with
IBM products
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which factor is most significant when determining the viability of applications?
A. the number of users of the application
B. end user perception of the application
C. the software vendor's market capitalization
D. the flexibility, supportability, performance and coverage of the application
Answer: D

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NO.8 A client's support staff and stakeholders are interviewed and pertinent data has been supplied.
Which three steps should be taken to understand the customer business automation goals? (Choose
three.)
A. list the experts related to business automation
B. identify the resource commitment from the client decision makers
C. determine any business automation dependencies in the business
D. define the business dependencies stated by the client's decision makers
E. identify the hardware requirements of the solution as defined by the customer
F. define the operational performance characteristics of the user interface for the solution
Answer: BCD

IBM   000-438   000-438   000-438

NO.9 While scheduling the introductory meeting with a company, who should be the client contact for
invitations to the introductory meeting?
A. the technical contact
B. the process manager
C. the customer sponsor
D. the administrative assistant to the process manager
Answer: C

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NO.10 A consultant is mapping a client business processes to client-identified pain points.
Which method should the consultant use to help the client rank their pain points?
A. build a table with each business process, and associated pain, weighting each on a scale of 1-10 and
review it with the client
B. investigate business type (Telecommunications, Enterprise, Government Agency or Small/Medium
business) and identify organizational structure and size
C. determine how existing business automation processes can be used to alleviate the client pain points
and how those processes will be mapped to take the client requirements into account
D. break down the high-level business processes into low-level component processes and create a
document that shows the relationship between the low-level and high-level business processes
Answer: A

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NO.11 What is a benefit of a single vendor solution?
A. easier to obtain maintenance and support
B. more likely to provide future business automation flexibility
C. greater likelihood of future stability in the business automation
D. easier to adapt new solutions from the Open Source community
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which two components of an existing infrastructure should be captured in initial business automation
requirement planning meetings with a client? (Choose two.)
A. Availability Monitoring
B. Performance Management
C. Human Resources Systems
D. Call Management Applications
E. Accounting Management Systems
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Before a requirements gathering session with the implementation team for a client project, the
customer liaison presents a list of experts. Later, at the requirements gathering session, it is apparent that
a team member would be a valuable expert for the project. What is the appropriate way to have this
person identified as an expert on the project?
A. begin copying the additional team member on all project communication
B. bypass the identified expert and begin communicating directly with the team member
C. communicate to the customer liaison that the team member has been included as an expert
D. contact the customer liaison, explain the situation, and ask for the appropriate way to have this person
included as an expert
Answer: D

IBM original questions   000-438   000-438   000-438

NO.14 What is an important factor when deploying a business automation solution into a customer
environment?
A. determine if a business automation solution was previously attempted
B. redefine the current workflows and practices used by the customer for business automation
C. gather the requirements for which business automation solutions will be deployed at a later date
D. set the expectations so that the client's strategic goals are clearly defined and are met by the business
automation solution
Answer: D

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NO.15 In Business Automation Management, what are performance, maintainability, and security
requirements considered to be?
A. automations
B. network events zones
C. functional requirements
D. non-functional requirements
Answer: D

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NO.16 A client has a custom-made management system that they developed in-house that must be
integrated with the business automation solution. What is the correct approach for proving the
integration?
A. prove with an on-site Proof of Concept
B. replace the application with new software
C. re-create in a lab and provide an off-site proof of technology
D. develop the integration as part of the full solution deployment
Answer: A

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NO.17 A telecommunications company configures their network equipment after receiving an order for a new
circuit from one of their customers. What is this an example of?
A. an automation
B. a key performance indicator
C. a low-level business process
D. a high-level business process
Answer: C

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NO.18 After business automation roles are understood and organizational information is acquired, which
steps are taken to align business automation roles with individual employees?
A. interview individuals, determine responsibilities, document roles
B. interview individuals, determine responsibilities, review with client
C. interview individuals, verify job titles, determine experience, document roles
D. identify individuals, document roles and responsibilities, provide information to client for review
Answer: B

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NO.19 In the first meeting with a customer, a half hour is dedicated to the meeting with a hard stop at the end.
The following roles are represented: the CIO, the CTO, a technical network professional, and an
application specialist. What should be the Solution Advisor's first step?
A. after brief introductions, discuss a high-level overview of their needs
B. focus on the CIO and the CTO, assuming there will be time to talk to the other attendees later
C. after brief introductions, have the network professional provide a diagram of the network data flow to
illustrate the problem
D. review the overriding business objective in the first ten minutes and move into a high-level, technical
overview of the solution
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two factors have the greatest impact on the scope and scale of a Business Process
Management solution? (Choose two.)
A. total headcount at each site
B. number of events processed per hour
C. gross e-commerce order volume per day
D. number of DNS names owned by the enterprise
E. number of integration points between subsystems
Answer: BE

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Exam Code: 000-R15

Exam Name: IBM (IBM AnyPlace Kiosk Models 5xx, 7xx, and 9xx Technical Mastery)

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NO.1 Which cash drawer configuration is enabled when the IBM AnyPlace POS Hub is attached to the IBM
AnyPlace Kiosk?
A.The POS Hub provides a port for one 24-volt cash drawer.
B.The POS Hub provides ports for two 24-volt cash drawers.
C.The POS Hub provides a port for one 12-volt cash drawer.
D.The POS Hub provides ports for one 12-volt cash drawer and one 24-volt cash drawer.WArialTimes
New RomanZ
Answer: A

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NO.2 Although the normal electrostatic discharge is ______ volts, IBM tests to make sure the IBM AnyPlace
Kiosk can withstand _________ volts without damage.
A.700 and 1,500
B.1,500 and 7,000
C.7,000 and 15,000
D.15,000 and 25,000WArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: C

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NO.3 How much power can the IBM AnyPlace Kiosk lose without needing an uninterruptible power supply
(UPS) to continue functioning?
A.10%
B.15%
C.20%
D.50%WArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the maximum amount of memory that can be factory installed on the IBM AnyPlace Kiosk?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.4GB
D.512MBWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two customizations can a customer choose for IBM AnyPlace Kiosk models? (Choose two.)
A.stereo or mono speakers
B.one of two AMD processors
C.one of three display sizes
D.a touch or non-touch display
E.a color or monochrome displayWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: BC

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NO.6 Which three features are standard on all IBM AnyPlace Kiosk models? (Choose three.)
A.1GB memory
B.tabletop mount
C.presence sensor
D.ExpressCard slot
E.internal CDROM drive
F.80GB SATA II 3.5-inch hard disk driveWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: CDF

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NO.7 On which IBM AnyPlace Kiosk models is the Service Processor feature standard?
A.all models
B.only the 19 inch models
C.only the models with the Turion microprocessor
D.only the models with the Sempron microprocessorWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

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NO.8 How many USB 2.0 ports are standard on all models of the IBM AnyPlace Kiosk?
A.two
B.six
C.four
D.fiveWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which three operating systems are supported by IBM on the IBM AnyPlace Kiosk? (Choose three.)
A.IBM PC DOS 7.0
B.Microsoft Windows 2000
C.IBM Retail Environment for SUSE Linux
D.Microsoft Windows Vista Business (32-bit)
E.Microsoft Windows XP Professional Edition (32-bit)
F.Microsoft Windows Embedded for Point of Service (WEPOS)WArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: DEF

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NO.10 What is the standard RAM configuration on all IBM AnyPlace Kiosk models?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.256MB
D.512MBWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: D

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Exam Code: LOT-828

Exam Name: IBM (Administering IBM Workplace Services Express 2.6)

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NO.1 Arman has deployed and supports several applications on a Workplace Services Express server. In
order to edit applications, which role must be assigned to a user?
A. Editor
B. Manager
C. Super User
D. Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.2 One template in George's Workplace Services Express deployment has been modified from another
template, and no longer fits the description of the original. What can be changed to make the template
appear differently in the list of template types?
A. Template name
B. Template title
C. Template section
D. Template category
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following portlets are required in order for Ron to deploy a new template for applications?
A. Application home portlet and membership portlet
B. Application description portlet and membership portlet
C. Application roles portlet and Application home portlet
D. Application calendar portlet, membership portlet and Common PIM portlet
Answer: A

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NO.4 Rob's company has Workplace Services Express development, staging and production servers. The
development team has created a new template on the development server. How does he move the
template from the development server to the staging server to the production server?
A. He runs XmlAccess to backup the template and restores it to the next server
B. He configures the development, staging and production servers to replicate template design
C. He exports the template as an XML file on one server, and imports it onto the next using the Workplace
Template Library
D. Each time the template is modified, he asks the development team to redeploy the .war file, which he
imports using the Portlet Manager
Answer: C

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NO.5 When Gerald's company developed a new application for Workplace Services Express, it did not fit into
any of the categories of previous applications, such as Team Spaces or Document Libraries. In addition to
creating a new category, what else must he do to make the application available for users?
A. Create a new application catalog list
B. Nothing, the application will show up with others
C. Create a new page with a link to the new application
D. Create an application catalog portlet to list all applications belonging to the new category and a page to
contain the new application catalog portlet
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which roles will allow users to view Templates from the Template Library?
A. Template Owner or User
B. Template Editor or User
C. Template Owner or Editor
D. Template Developer or Owner
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following can Craig modify in a template's properties?
A. Title, Skins and Template Owner
B. Title, Theme, and Template Editor
C. Category, Theme and Template Owner
D. Category, Skins and Template Editor
Answer: C

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NO.8 Philip created a new application catalog portlet. How does he configure it for a new category of
application?
A. Modify the catalog policy setting in the WebSphere Administration Console
B. Open the Administration screen, choose the portlet and configure its properties
C. Because category association is automatic based on the name of the portlet, he does nothing
D. Open the page that contains the catalog portlet, click the configure wrench icon, and then select the
category
Answer: D

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NO.9 Having been given a new application, Bob has created an application catalog portlet. How does he
make the application available to users?
A. Users can access the application directly from a URL generated by the policy notification task
B. He wires several portlets to complete the application configuration, then notify users of its existence
C. When creating a page to contain the application, he chooses the "Notify users of new application"
option
D. He creates, set security access to, and deploys a new page; and users can access the application from
the application catalog on that page
Answer: D

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NO.10 William is preparing to export a template to XML for use on another Workplace Services Express server.
Where is this capability exposed?
A. In the Template Library
B. In the Administration panel
C. In the Template Policies Panel
D. In the WebSphere Administration Console
Answer: A

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